zompist bboard

Circeus wrote:So let me get this straight. You mean a language where there is no noun that corresponds to the action expressed by the verb, i.e. there is not separate form that correspond to the second member of do vs. action, perform vs. performance.

Yep

How to conflate verbs with verbal nouns and noun descriptors with sentence participents aka verb descriptors (genitive case with agentive and dative case with patientive) For example "my action" sounds and is written the same (and is thought to have the same meaning) as "I do" and "the rain in Spai...

I believe the Ancient Greek double accusative is similar to this idea: Observe a sentance involving the verb "διδασκειν" ("to teach"): "φῐ́λον τὸν λόγον διδάσκω" or "τὸν λόγον φῐ́λον διδάσκω" ("I teach a friend logic") In this situation both "φῐ́λον" ("friend") and "λόγον" ("logic") have the accusat...

clawgrip wrote:This prouldn't be a conlang.

It's still conlanging.

valiums wrote:I don't know what's going on here

What don't you understand?

valiums wrote:but I suggest b'reason/breason/beason and b'ex/bex anyways.

Good point. There's no point in putting the "I know" bit since it's there every time.

valiums wrote:Does something honestly count as a conlang when it's literally just a language + 12 words?

I think so, just a really small one.
Do you think this should go in C&C Quickies?

Better realisation of the idea behind English with epistemic modality:

With modal verbs, the simple past tense cannot be made. So a better way is to shorten phrases such as "by reason I know", "by experience I know" etc down to one word. I.e. "breasknow" /bɹiznʌw/ and "byxpieknow" /bajkʰspʰinʌw/.