zompist bboard

OTOH the dissimilation may be something other than voiced stop to a voiced fricative. Your thoughts? In this model, what causes the different vowel coloring of h₂ vs. h₃? Note that Carrasquer Vidal has suggested that *k (i.e. not *kʷ or *ḱ) had the same vowel coloring effect as h₂ does. So, this is...

Are the words in the Pella tablet recognizably Hellenic-like enough that the voiceless aspirates in question might be corrections by a scribe familiar with "correct" pronunciation? The possibility of voiced aspirates in Macedonian is fascinating, but without the Pella tablet data the possibility rem...

The only case that I've found where there are different grades of vowel coloring from different consonants (leaving aside palatal and rounding assimilation) is in modern Danish, where the backmost coloring results from /ʁ/ (orthographic "r"). However, there's no /X/ in Danish to compare it to as far...

re: the oft-mooted problem of PIE's apparent stop system (tenuis-voiced-voiced aspirate), which is highly unusual if not just plain unattested, has anyone suggested the possibility that PIE actually had a voiceless aspirate series that systematically spirantised shortly before the spread and diversi...

Thanks for pointing out Verner's law, I hadn't thought of that.

For purposes of early Germanic and Indo-European comparisons, it's the same difference if the word is inherited per se or is an intra-Germanic loan, e.g. Dutch to English.

Eng. "peg" is an interesting word. It's the only inherited (i.e. direct from Proto-Germanic) word in English that I know of which begins with p- and appears to have a solid Indo-European etymology. That is, it appears to continue the elesuive PIE *b-. Wiktionary gives ... from Proto-Germanic *pig-, ...

What are the best papers/websites to get acquainted myself with the latest developments and understandings of Proto-Yukaghir and and Proto-Uralic reconstructions and of their last common predecesor? Are you on academia.edu? Their in-site search function isn't that great, so I recommend doing search...

Still, though, could it just be that Balto-Slavic simply lacked a distinction that Temematic had, and didnt pick it up during loanwords? e.g. maybe the Tememian system was b/p/pʰ, with only a single change from PIE That sounds plausible. Or maybe some from column A and some from column B. That is, ...

(not that this is very informative, but fwiw) Carrasquer Vidal, in his glottalic theory paper (https://www.academia.edu/8605000/The_glottalic_theory ), states that the "early PIE" system (voiceless-implosive-voiced) "can easily have developed out of an earlier (let’s call it ‘Nostratic’) system with...

Is English "eight" (< P.Germ. /ˈɑx.tɔːu̯/) irregular for having /t/ rather than /θ/, or is that a regular exception to Grimm's?

Or was the Armenian borrowed from Germanic via Syriac burgā , like Arabic burj ? So how is Syriac in any way closer to Armenian than Germanic is? Guus Kroonen proposes in his Germanic etymological dictionary that the Balto-Slavic cognates suggesting *bʰergʰ- would be actually loans from Germanic. T...

How does Aquan fit in?

So a third opinion on the stop correspondences between IE and Kartvelian? Dolgopolsky has: Has anyone attempted to explain this as different strata of vocabulary? Certainly no law of god or man says there can't be inherited "Indo-Kartvelian" vocabulary alongside one or more layers of early IE loan ...

Travis B. wrote:WTH is that U+E001 supposed to be there?

I think I fixed it now. Should be k with dot below, representing the velar ejective. See https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstr ... %B8%B3erd- (and note that in this case the modern Georgian happens to be very similar).

For anyone who's curious, Carrasquer Vidal describes his version of IE/Kartvelian reflexes at the end of this short article on the glottalic theory: https://www.academia.edu/8605000/The_glottalic_theory I seem to recall seeing a slightly longer account somewhere else, but I can't find it. In this ar...

Per Carrasquer Vidal (a Nostraticist), PIE tenuis correspond to Proto-Kartvelian ejective; PIE plain voiced (ejective according to the glottalic theory) to Proto-Kartv. voiced; and PIE voiced aspirate to Proto-Kartv. voiceless aspirate, except for *bʰ which corresponds to Proto-Kartv. *b. This seems...

Note that if you go by the proposal made by various incl. Kümmel (cf. https://www.academia.edu/1538887/Typology_and_reconstruction_The_consonants_and_vowels_of_Proto-Indo-European ) that */e/ was earlier *[a] and */o/ was *[ā], then PIE vowel grades start to look extremely similar to Sanskrit vowel ...

What you could do, though, is to make inanimate subjects of intransitive verbs expressed as objects. But that makes it, I think, a quite standard fluid-S active-stative language. Right, that's what I was thinking. From an English perspective, it's almost like the stative verb is a transitive with a...

Also, "stops are the only phonemes where voicing is phonemic" is not particularly remarkable crosslinguistically. About half the language surveyed by WALS with voicing only have voicing in the plosives. Right, that's a feature. If the goal is to explain why voicing assimilation doesn't affect this ...

Not claiming to be an expert on this, but the Sanskrit vowel gradation system doesn't seem all that different from the PIE system morphologically. In PIE, it's basically weak grade: ∅ + optional semivowel or anaptyctic *e if the syllable would otherwise be phonologically illicit guna grade: *e + opt...

I follow the interpretation that palatovelars were actually plain and the plain velars were actually uvular. I agree, that one's pretty good. And, indeed, not altogether incompatible with what I said above: could be there was originally /ɟ/ /k/ /ɡʷ/ /kʷ/ /ɢ/ /q/. Indeed there do seem to be more tha...

Has anyone ever suggested that PIE had an affricate series? I mean, I believe Beckwith suggested something like that, which is where I got the idea, although I can't find the passage I'm thinking of. I seem to recall Beckwith cited the idea as originating with someone else. But ... other than that? ...

More specifically, unconditioned palatalisation of the voiced velar stop while the voiceless equivalent remains velar.

Does anyone know of any theories on what motivated Proto-Semitic /ɡ/ to develop into /ɟ/ in Arabic? Is this sound change attested crosslinguistically? I started wondering about this while musing on the centum/satem split in Indo-European. If Proto-Indo-European, like Classical Arabic, had /ɟ/ and /k...

1) (Mandarin) Chinese. I am a marginally fluent speaker and can read a few hundred characters. That took a lot of effort! 2) Latin. I had several years of it in elementary school. I certainly don’t have much command of it, but I often surprise myself by remembering vocabulary and conjugations. 3) Ge...