zompist bboard

does it even have the { > e@ / _(m n) shift? because that's pretty much universal in america as far as I know Yes, it has it. ????????? I must be seriously misunderstanding something. I don't do this, and I don't know of anyone, local or not, who does. See here . It's pretty common in North America...

rickardspaghetti wrote:Isn't the thing with ejectives to pronounce a sound without any airflow? How can fricatives be articulated in this way?

By increasing air pressure through raising the glottis faster than air can escape through the space allowed by the tongue.

I have already described my phonology around here ad nauseum and will not repeat. As for grammar: There is a profound degree of phonetic reduction of verbal auxiliaries that are also encliticized to the Subject. "I'm going to have been going to the store." [aː.mn̩.nəv.vɪn ɡoːn tʰə.d̪ə.stɔːʁ] I'm'on...

I am not so sure about Swedish, but I know that there are still people from parts of North Dakota and Minnesota which apparently still speak various Norwegian dialects... They're very few and far between though. You'd have much better luck if you rewound to 100-150 years ago. Same case for German b...

Qwynegold wrote:I thought there were some people somewhere in USA who still spoke a really old-fashioned Swedish.

I am not so sure about Swedish, but I know that there are still people from parts of North Dakota and Minnesota which apparently still speak various Norwegian dialects...

the gain it from another language doesnt quite answer it in my eyes as it becomes circular. How did they originally gain the sound? and so on. How would any language alone gain any sounds that it originally didnt have? Through retention of phones used in the language such loans originally came from...

I find it difficult to imagine other methods than this are often enacted for languages to acquire new sounds...extensive borrowing, maybe, but that's a stretch unless the entire population of speakers have been conquered by a linguistically separate group. There are weirder, messier ways of acquiri...

"Rickard looks through the map once again." What!? There are Swedish speakers in Ukraine? It was founded in like the 18th century by people from the Swedish army when they were conquering stuff. The eighteenth-century Swedish army conquered stuff in Ukraine ? Wow. (Incidentally, I was under the imp...

rickardspaghetti wrote:What? I don't speak Swedish anymore!?

Swedish = Svealandish here.

it can't possibly be harder for you to master than it is for Americans to learn the use of the subjunctive in Romance languages. But... we use the subjunctive all the time... "If I were to go down there tomorrow..." "Thanks be to God..." You use constructions like that "all the time"? I know I don'...

I don't know how often people around me say you guys' --I agree it sounds kind of cumbersome. Personally, I usually say your guys (or sometimes your guys' ). Hey, I use you guys' ! If you ask me, your guys sounds just flat out wrong. It's unacceptable. At least here, just your is used as the posses...

Doing so I find suggestions that modern French has two genitives; a suggestion that English's "of" genitive and English's "Saxon" genitive (I think that's the "-'s" genitive) should be treated as Genitive-1 and Genitive-2; and a suggestion that modern English pronouns have two genitives. Genitive-1...

But of course, we use “bror” and “syster” too. *wonders if bror is the origin of Scots brar * Couldn’t it just be some sound change in Scots English? Intervocalic [D] gone down the drain … ? Even Bengali has brathar :) It seems that here brother may be pronounced [br\V:R] similarly. However, this s...

As regards making the sound [r], you have to have a flexible tongue. Not really.. you just need a trained tongue. The more you pronounce it, the better you get at it, but from what I know the ability isn't limited just to certain gifted people. I wouldn't even go that far. This one only took me abo...

Doing so I find suggestions that modern French has two genitives; a suggestion that English's "of" genitive and English's "Saxon" genitive (I think that's the "-'s" genitive) should be treated as Genitive-1 and Genitive-2; and a suggestion that modern English pronouns have two genitives. Genitive-1...

I can't say anything about outside influence on AAVE myself, but I can most definitely say that it, or at least the sort of it spoken in urban areas here in southeastern Wisconsin, most definitely has double negation, and it at least to me seems to be a systematic feature throughout it.