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Another commenter on Wells's blog has given a link to http://fonetik.dk/dansk_udtale/oevelser/ (in Danish) which has lots of recordings of Danish sounds, including the "/ð/", stød, and the vowels. This was mentioned by Wells too, but a lot of the vowels seem to me to be higher than their traditional...

Somehow I keep overlooking the said recordings mentioned in the comments, but here it does sound lateral to me when in coda position (between vowels I hear no sound at all or something like [M\]). The recordings mentioned in the comments are at http://da.forvo.com/search/%C3%A6de/ (a recording of "...

An interesting post on John Wells's blog about Danish:
http://phonetic-blog.blogspot.com/2010/11/danish.html

Do other people (including non-English speakers) agree that the "/ð/" sounds lateral? Based on the recordings mentioned in the comments, my ears do seem to hear it as (English) /l/.

Ninja edit: Wikipedia 5 languages besides (American) English where the retroflex approximant occurs, including Mandarin. I assume it's phonemic in those languages. No doubt there are more langs that Wikipedia left out, but it still doesn't appear to be frightfully common. UPSID lists 17 languages (...

For example, the French Indo-Europeanist André Martinet, in his book Des steppes aux océans. L'indo-européen et les "Indo-Européens" , quotes an European substrate root *kan(t)-/*gan(d)- 'stone' (e.g. Spanish canto 'pebble', hence canto rodado 'rolling stone'). This word can be linked to PNC *tɬ’an...

It should be noted that the merger of most meet and meat -words is actually not traditionally present in all of Anglic, even outside Scots. A range of traditional Anglic dialects, and not just Scots, in the British Isles never merged the two, instead shifting Early New English /eː/ (1) to things su...

I sometimes elide the n, especially before [ʔ] (so [kãʔ] for can't), but it's variable, and I'm not sure whether I've adopted this from American varieties or if it is present otherwise in Britain. When I was young, 'can't' was [kanʔ] (whether [a] had nasalisation i'm not sure), and was very difficu...

Okay, this is useful information, particularly because it indicates that the /t/ > /d/ in congratulate is something that happened in North America and not something inherited from dialects in the British Isles. On a somewhat off-topic note, it is interesting that you have /nd/ > /ŋ/ or /ŋɡ/ (I cann...

5. In Irish, intervocalic d and g often disappear, although occasionally a weakly articulated /G/ is pronounced. The original consonant is retained in the spelling <dh>, <gh>. This is part of the process of lenition, and affects even initial consonants, when they follow a word formerly ending in a ...

Articles (especially the).

Tense/aspect.

Mispronunciations caused by irregular spelling.

[T] and [D] (especially if replaced by [s] and [z]: other options are better)

Vowel system (especially pronouncing TRAP as [E])

Soap wrote:Still the idea of having a length distinction between long and short syllabic [r] seems difficult for me to accept.

Doesn't Slovak have that?

Is it me, or does it seem that my dialect has completely reversed the overall starting points of historical /aɪ̯/ and /aʊ̯/, both with and without Canadian Raising, compared to most other North American English dialects? It seems that most North American English dialects have a clearly fronted and ...

Conversely, can we say that the supposed distinction between a North American English [oʊ̯] and an English English [əʊ̯] for historical /oʊ̯/ does not hold as true as it once may have? I don't think it ever did. I thought it was well-known that there were parts of the US with a fronted (and unround...

xłp̓x̣ʷłtłpłłskʷc̓ Case closed. You know, I even remember reading that one on Wikipedia, now that I think about it. I'd still want to hear someone pronounce it - I would definitely stick a few vowels in if I tried. The UCLA phonetics archive does have a recording of some of the vowelless words from...

Two examples from modern English dialects: 1) The "short A split" of some parts of the eastern US produces "tensing" of /{/ to [e@] or similar before certain consonants, including /n/ and /v/. But function words, like "have" and modal "can", are immune, and retain [{]. Wikipedia has more details. 2)...

In Scouse I understand that some words (like that ) can be pronounced with the last consonant either [h] (utterance finally) or [4] (before a word beginning with a vowel). This looks a lot like [4] and [h] being allophones of the same phoneme. (Paper here , though the encoding of some IPA symbols is...

The strut-book split. By this, do you mean that book has the GOOSE vowel (so foot , put , strut and luck have one vowel and book and goose have another - I think of this as the "Stoke" pattern), or that you have the RP pattern with the foot-strut split (so that foot and put have a different vowel f...

Well, here is an example of my semi-careful speech I already have up; note that it is not really what I speak in everyday life, but rather how I tend to speak into a microphone. Honestly, even allowing that that's your "microphone voice", you sound completely normal to me. There are slight hints of...

[talking about 'aural'] Here's a question, and this one goes out to the general populace: do you make a distinction between 'oral' and 'aural'? They show up in conjunction in linguistics a lot. Let's assume that you don't force a distinction by pronouncing the second with a MOUTH vowel... I'm just ...

- /r/ is realised as a labialised postalveolar approximant, [ɹ̱ʷ]. The labialisation is very strong, so that when I was first learning about phonetics I thought /r/ was a labial consonant. The roundedness is of a different sort than that in /w/, but I'm not sure how to describe it. Since [ɹ̱ʷ] neve...

IIRC, some people pronounce broad and slender <v> [w] and [v] respectively and some with broad and slender <t> and <d> as [t] vs. [tS] and [d] vs. [dZ]. This affricate pronunciation has always struck me as very non-native. West Cork speakers used to realise broad coronal stops as dental when velari...

I would say the majority of Irish speakers don't realise that the difference between bó and beo is the consonant, not the vowel. They will know the term caolú, but think that it means to add an i (the most common way of writing it, bád -> báid etc.) not palatalize the consonant. Would this still ap...

I have a question! The acute mark. It appears to be called a 'fada'. However, I've fairly certain my mother pronounces it /fQD@/ (or something that to my english ears sounds like that - Q, not a, and D, not d. Now, a-->Q doesn't seem impossible but why on earth a D? HAve you heard anything like tha...