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zompist bboard • View topic - Odd natlang features thread

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PostPosted: Sat Aug 01, 2015 6:50 am 
Smeric
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They probably don't need any consonants, having such a vowel inventory? ;-)


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PostPosted: Thu Sep 17, 2015 8:45 am 
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Siöö jandeng raiglin zåbei tandiüłåd;
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PostPosted: Fri Oct 02, 2015 8:17 pm 
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Ukue (f v h), Cacua (ʍ h), several Polynesian languages and Sentani (f h), and Koiari (f ð h) have fricatives but no sibilants.

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PostPosted: Sat Oct 03, 2015 3:44 am 
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PostPosted: Wed Oct 21, 2015 4:54 pm 
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PostPosted: Fri Nov 13, 2015 8:55 am 
Smeric
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I only just started reading it but holy shit ! Blocked by certain intervening consonants.


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PostPosted: Fri Nov 13, 2015 6:26 pm 
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PostPosted: Sat Nov 14, 2015 10:23 am 
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The Japanese coda nasal, judging from what spoken Japanese I have heard, varies a lot. Before another consonant, it assimilates to that consonant's POA (as in shimbun 'newspaper'); and in at least some dialects, it doesn't surface as a segment at all but merely nasalizes the vowel.

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ESTAR-3SG:P human-OBJ only human-OBJ true-OBJ REL-LOC play-3SG:A


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PostPosted: Fri Nov 20, 2015 11:02 pm 
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Maq Lar: Point. The source is , which gives an almost-minimal pair of ŋa44 'diligent' / ɴa21 'sweat'. I'd take that with a grain of salt, since it's a highly unusual feature reported without comment by an institution that does not consistently produce the highest-quality work -- it's interesting enough to post here, but it's not an ironclad demonstration of phonemicity, or even transcription accuracy. But it's possible that it has a phonemic uvular nasal.

----

Tagdal is a Songhay language with extensive Berber influence. Its verbal derivational morphology consists of three prefixes -- a causative, a passive, and a reciprocal -- all of which are loaned from Berber. The causative and passive can only be applied to verbs of Berber origin. Verbs of Songhay origin are causativized by suppletion with Berber loans that are otherwise not present in the Tagdal lexicon -- so the causative of the Berber loan ənfər 'push aside' is sənfər, but the causative of the native verb koy 'go' is səglu, and there is no Tagdal word əglu. The same thing applies to passives: the passive of ənfər is tuwənfər, but the passive of bay 'know' is tuwasən, derived from a Berber root sən that doesn't exist in that form in Tagdal. There is only one Songhay verb with a nonsuppletive causative: the causative of kan 'fall' is kanda (from kan nda 'make fall') rather than səggədəl, probably because səggədəl means 'limp'.

Cf. Algerian Arabic, which is apparently in the process of borrowing the French articles for use with French loanwords.

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PostPosted: Mon Feb 22, 2016 2:43 am 
Smeric
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PostPosted: Mon Feb 22, 2016 10:05 pm 
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[ʈʂʰɤŋtɕjɑŋ], or whatever you can comfortably pronounce that's close to that

Formerly known as Primordial Soup

Supporter of use of [ȶ ȡ ȵ ȴ] in transcription

It is pitch black. You are likely to be eaten by a 青.


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PostPosted: Tue Feb 23, 2016 5:05 am 
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PostPosted: Tue Feb 23, 2016 6:31 am 
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[ʈʂʰɤŋtɕjɑŋ], or whatever you can comfortably pronounce that's close to that

Formerly known as Primordial Soup

Supporter of use of [ȶ ȡ ȵ ȴ] in transcription

It is pitch black. You are likely to be eaten by a 青.


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PostPosted: Tue Feb 23, 2016 7:15 am 
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PostPosted: Mon Feb 29, 2016 1:39 am 
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-_-_Aftovota_-_-


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PostPosted: Mon Feb 29, 2016 1:38 pm 
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PostPosted: Mon Feb 29, 2016 2:32 pm 
Smeric
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And in Old French <g> before <e, i, y> was pronounced an affrcate, not an approximant.

And AFAICT those voiced plosives turned into voiced fricatives rather than disappearing, at least at first.


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PostPosted: Tue Mar 08, 2016 2:19 am 
Smeric
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Kashmiri has a phonemic contrast between palatalized and non-palatalized consonants. OK, that's not cross-linguistically weird, but that does seem pretty weird for India. Its basic word order is either SVO or V2 from what I've heard. I don't think I know of any other Indian language that has that word order. It sounds more like German. :P

It also apparently has a phonemic contrast between /ɨ/, /ɨː/, /ə/, and /əː/, in addition to the /a aː i iː u uː e eː o oː/ vowels that are typical of e.g. Dravidian languages.


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PostPosted: Tue Mar 08, 2016 5:32 am 
Avisaru
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PostPosted: Thu Mar 10, 2016 6:54 pm 
Smeric
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Just wanted to say thanks! :)


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PostPosted: Fri Jul 22, 2016 4:06 pm 
Smeric
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<Ser> in Spanish, it's funny
<Ser> when you say "if he comes", that is, when you're not sure somebody's gonna come in the future, then you use the indicative present: si viene
<Ser> but when you say "when he comes", that is, when you are sure somebody's gonna come in the future, then you use the subjunctive present: cuando venga
<Ser> it's like, the opposite of the stereotypical uses of the indicative and subjunctive

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PostPosted: Thu Sep 08, 2016 3:59 am 
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Manambu has a "substitutive" case meaning "instead of X". It also has two cases marking mode of transportation, and may also attach case affixes to verb roots, with the locative being a completive and the dative a purposive.

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PostPosted: Thu Sep 08, 2016 8:32 pm 
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In Hungarian, the distal demonstrative pronoun is az. Before a vowel, the definite article is also az (it's a before a consonant. The copula is dropped in 3rd person when linking nouns with nouns or nouns with adjectives ... so ...

az alma = the apple
Az alma. = That is an apple.
Az az alma. = That is the apple.

To use demonstratives as determiners ... they must precede the definite article, so ...

az az alma = that apple
Az az az alma. = That is that apple.

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PostPosted: Sat Oct 01, 2016 8:05 pm 
Smeric
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Maniq and Mam having no word nicely equivalent to "to eat", but rather a group of words chosen depending on the food, as mentioned in:

viewtopic.php?f=7&t=44462

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PostPosted: Sat Oct 01, 2016 11:12 pm 
Smeric
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I'm actually not sure that's so odd. At least, I know anecdotally that some languages have specialized words for 'to eat'...like 'to eat (anything)' vs. 'to eat a meal', and this distinction is found across a pretty wide variety of languages, too.


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