Egein wrote:And it should have been "ach t? an focal"...
Actually, it should have been "is ? an focal n? ...".


Egein wrote:Ahhh.
So "an" can stand alone (not an bhfuil)?. Or is "an" always alone when it is with the copula?
But I dont understand this:
at? s? ? fhoghlaim agat?
I mean, I understand , but not this:
at? s? ? fhoghlaim agat.
I don't understand why it's ? and not a. ? would stand for something like "a a" ?
Well anyways. I still have alot to learn. Lenition and eclips are to me the hardest things because they seem to appear in such perticular cases! And also contractions. Like "c?rb siad" Why is it c?rB, and not c?rbh? Or is it just a typo...
Dauyn wrote:I'm really confused too. I learned (in the Donagle gaeltacht) that ag + ? = aici. Acoording to the Christian borthers, it's from do + a, though ag + a makes more sense. But ag + ? > ? makes no sense to me at all.... unless it got normalized.
aardwolf wrote:Again: thank you linguoboy!
Salmoneus wrote:The existence of science has not been homosexually proven.
TzirTzi wrote:Sorry - I realise this is soomewhat off topic - but several people have mentioned scottish gaelic, and I was wondering if there were any scottish gaelic speakers on the board? Tis a language I would really like to learn, but I've never found anyone who speaks it...
linguoboy wrote:aardwolf wrote:I don't have my copy of the book with me ATM, could you give me an example?
Neither do I, unfortunately. Here's an example from the site Egein linked to:
T? t? d?r (i.e. do + ?r) mbualadh = You are hitting us.
(IIRC, in Cois Fhairrge, the d?r is pronounced [Ga].)
linguoboy wrote:aardwolf wrote:If you're asking why "do" is used instead of "ag" in some places, it's becuase the direct object is a (non 3rd person) pronoun.
Can you ever use do in place of ag when there's no direct object, even dialectally?
I haven't heard people use [D] for /d/; what dialect does your mother have? And [Q] for /a/ also sounds weird to me for that matter. Actually, when saying things like "a fada" (a-acute), it comes out more like ["a.fa_0.d@].Salmoneus wrote:I have a question!
The acute mark. It appears to be called a 'fada'. However, I've fairly certain my mother pronounces it /fQD@/ (or something that to my english ears sounds like that - Q, not a, and D, not d. Now, a-->Q doesn't seem impossible but why on earth a D? HAve you heard anything like that?
aardwolf wrote:I haven't heard people use [D] for /d/; what dialect does your mother have? And [Q] for /a/ also sounds weird to me for that matter. Actually, when saying things like "a fada" (a-acute), it comes out more like ["a.fa_0.d@].Salmoneus wrote:I have a question!
The acute mark. It appears to be called a 'fada'. However, I've fairly certain my mother pronounces it /fQD@/ (or something that to my english ears sounds like that - Q, not a, and D, not d. Now, a-->Q doesn't seem impossible but why on earth a D? HAve you heard anything like that?