Flaidish question

Questions or discussions about Almea or Verduria-- also the Incatena. Also good for postings in Almean languages.
Post Reply
User avatar
alice
Avisaru
Avisaru
Posts: 707
Joined: Wed Oct 30, 2002 4:43 pm
Location: Three of them

Flaidish question

Post by alice »

Apologies if this as been asked before, but this is my first post in this forum...

I was thinking about this:
For both high vowels, the Flaidish rule is that the vowel acquired an initial glide of the opposite backness.
and was wondering what the phonetic motivation might be. Or, for that matter, the external (non-linguistic) motivation, i.e. "why you did it that way".
Zompist's Markov generator wrote:it was labelled" orange marmalade," but that is unutterably hideous.

zompist
Boardlord
Boardlord
Posts: 3368
Joined: Thu Sep 12, 2002 8:26 pm
Location: In the den
Contact:

Re: Flaidish question

Post by zompist »

The meta-conlinguistic explanation is given in the previous paragraph: it's how the English spelling system works for <u>: "long u" in "cute" > /ju/. If long i worked the same way, it'd've gone to /wi/.

A possible path for this might be [uu] > [yu] (rounding) > [ju] (fronting).

I'm not sure that this is any weirder than the actual GVS, where the initial vowel was lowered 2 or 3 steps!

User avatar
alice
Avisaru
Avisaru
Posts: 707
Joined: Wed Oct 30, 2002 4:43 pm
Location: Three of them

Re: Flaidish question

Post by alice »

If /ei/ > /oi/ > /wa/ in French (and something similar in Brythonic), then it's not too far from that to /ii/ >/wi/.
Zompist's Markov generator wrote:it was labelled" orange marmalade," but that is unutterably hideous.

Post Reply