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Flaidish question
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Author:  alice [ Sat Dec 03, 2016 4:58 pm ]
Post subject:  Flaidish question

Apologies if this as been asked before, but this is my first post in this forum...

I was thinking about this:

For both high vowels, the Flaidish rule is that the vowel acquired an initial glide of the opposite backness.

and was wondering what the phonetic motivation might be. Or, for that matter, the external (non-linguistic) motivation, i.e. "why you did it that way".

Author:  zompist [ Sat Dec 03, 2016 5:36 pm ]
Post subject:  Re: Flaidish question

The meta-conlinguistic explanation is given in the previous paragraph: it's how the English spelling system works for <u>: "long u" in "cute" > /ju/. If long i worked the same way, it'd've gone to /wi/.

A possible path for this might be [uu] > [yu] (rounding) > [ju] (fronting).

I'm not sure that this is any weirder than the actual GVS, where the initial vowel was lowered 2 or 3 steps!

Author:  alice [ Sun Dec 04, 2016 1:48 pm ]
Post subject:  Re: Flaidish question

If /ei/ > /oi/ > /wa/ in French (and something similar in Brythonic), then it's not too far from that to /ii/ >/wi/.

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