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PostPosted: Sun Jul 01, 2018 7:34 pm 
Sumerul
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Wikipedia says Manchu /s/ can be realized as [ts] in any position

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PostPosted: Mon Jul 02, 2018 1:36 pm 
Smeric
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Max1461 wrote:
How do these changes look?

ts tɬ tɕ→ s ɬ ɕ (but ts' tɬ' tɕ' preserved)
(later)
p’ k’ q’ → pf’ kx’ qχ’ → f’ x’ χ’
f' → f

Assuming an initial inventory without ejective fricatives?

Ejective fricatives are rare; I have a hard time imagining a system with ejective fricatives but no ejective stops. Ejective fricatives are far more likely to affricate (see Semitic) than vice versa. The first line is completely plausible, though.

Max1461 wrote:
Is there any chance of unconditioned s > ts, if there are other sources of s to fill in the gap?

Seems perfectly plausible to me.

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PostPosted: Sat Jul 14, 2018 6:25 pm 
Avisaru
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Is /p͡f t͡θ k͡x/ as an intermediate step between /pʰ tʰ kʰ/ :> /f θ x/ attested?

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PostPosted: Sun Jul 15, 2018 5:17 am 
Smeric
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Yes, in German


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PostPosted: Tue Jul 17, 2018 11:14 am 
Smeric
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KathTheDragon wrote:
Yes, in German

Well, not the dental part (Germanic /t(h)/ > OHG /t_s/ or /s:/ > NHG /t_s/ or /s/)


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PostPosted: Wed Jul 25, 2018 4:22 am 
Lebom
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How can a European-ish phonology with extensive voiced-voiceless pairs in both plosives and fricatives lose its phonemic voicing completely?


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PostPosted: Tue Jul 31, 2018 8:42 am 
Smeric
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I propose that you ask this on the new board. It's a headache to post here with all the glitches. In any case, look at the history of Danish, or of German dialects - many of them have no phonemic voicedness distinction, only a tense - lax distinction where the lax consonants sometimes surface as phonetically voiced, but often don't.


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