[ˈhɔʊ̯] [ˈhɔʊ̯] [ˈhɔʊ̯li] [ˈhɔʊ̯li] [ˈhɔli~ˈhɔʊ̯li]KathTheDragon wrote:How about "hole", "whole", "holy", "holey", and "wholly"?
(I usually say "wholly" so to rhyme with "holly" because of spelling pronunciation I guess)
[ˈhɔʊ̯] [ˈhɔʊ̯] [ˈhɔʊ̯li] [ˈhɔʊ̯li] [ˈhɔli~ˈhɔʊ̯li]KathTheDragon wrote:How about "hole", "whole", "holy", "holey", and "wholly"?
[ho(ː)ʊ ho(ː)ʊ hoːʟ̞i(ː)~hoːʊi(ː) hoːʟ̞i(ː)~hoːʊi(ː) hoːʟ̞ːi(ː)]KathTheDragon wrote:How about "hole", "whole", "holy", "holey", and "wholly"?
For can I have [kʰn̩(ː)] when unstressed and [kʰɛ̃(ː)(n)] when stressed (but tend to drop the [n] before consonants and in less careful speech and preserve it before vowels and in more careful speech).Pole, the wrote:Have we had “can” vs ”can't”?
There is indeed. English people have [æ] vs [ɑː], and can has a reduced vowel (schwa or whatever) in most utterances, in most accents – if you say you never do this, I don't believe you – while can't is rarely reduced as it's usually the stressed word in the sentence.Zaarin wrote:Is there likely to be much variation? [ˈkʰæn] [ˈkʰænt]
I personally find stressed can and can't in GA very hard to tell apart before fortis obstruents, as the fortis obstruent causes the vowel length difference to be neutralized, and often GA speakers drop the [ʔ] in can't in such environments rather than the [n] as I do.finlay wrote:My problem is, if "can" is stressed they sound almost identical because i have [kʰan] ~ [kʰanʔ] usually (where [a] can be [æ] or front/central [a]) and I often have to say [kʰantʰ] or affect an English accent to make them distinct. (when I'm teaching I often subconsciously affect an English or American accent to make myself more understandable)
I didn't say I never reduce can, but I'm reasonably confident that I only do so in quick speech. Under most circumstances, I definitely have a vowel in can, though it may reduce to [ɛ] (æ > ɛ, especially before a resonant, is frequent but inconsistent in my idiolect).finlay wrote:There is indeed. English people have [æ] vs [ɑː], and can has a reduced vowel (schwa or whatever) in most utterances, in most accents – if you say you never do this, I don't believe you – while can't is rarely reduced as it's usually the stressed word in the sentence.Zaarin wrote:Is there likely to be much variation? [ˈkʰæn] [ˈkʰænt]
I've been known to use it jocularly...(Also, many scottish people say cannae for can't lmao)
Did you intentionally not mark length or don't you have lenghtening in "morale", "siege" and "camouflage"? In "siege" especially I'd expect long [i:].Zaarin wrote:soldier [ˈsɔʊ̯lʤɹ̩ˁ]
officer [ˈɔˑfɪsɹ̩ˁ]
cavalry [ˈkʰævl̩ɹ̠ˁi]
morale [mɵˈɹ̠ˁæl]
siege [ˈsiʤ]
colonel [ˈkʰɹ̩ˁnl̩]
lieutenant [luˈtʰɛnn̩t]
camouflage [ˈkʰæməˌflɑʒ] or maybe [ˈkʰæmɵˌflɑʒ]
rendezvous [ˌɹ̠ˁɑndɛɪ̯ˈvu] or [ʀɑ̃devu]
sortie [sɔʊ̯ɹ̠ˁˈtiˑ]
A lot of people do not mark allophonic vowel length.jal wrote:Did you intentionally not mark length or don't you have lenghtening in "morale", "siege" and "camouflage"? In "siege" especially I'd expect long [i:].Zaarin wrote:soldier [ˈsɔʊ̯lʤɹ̩ˁ]
officer [ˈɔˑfɪsɹ̩ˁ]
cavalry [ˈkʰævl̩ɹ̠ˁi]
morale [mɵˈɹ̠ˁæl]
siege [ˈsiʤ]
colonel [ˈkʰɹ̩ˁnl̩]
lieutenant [luˈtʰɛnn̩t]
camouflage [ˈkʰæməˌflɑʒ] or maybe [ˈkʰæmɵˌflɑʒ]
rendezvous [ˌɹ̠ˁɑndɛɪ̯ˈvu] or [ʀɑ̃devu]
sortie [sɔʊ̯ɹ̠ˁˈtiˑ]
I do not have lengthening in "camouflage," but I do have lengthening in "siege" and slight lengthening in "morale." I've updated my post accordingly. Even though I use it in quite a few of my conlangs, I don't really tend to think about length since I can't think of any minimal pairs in my dialect/idiolect.jal wrote:Did you intentionally not mark length or don't you have lenghtening in "morale", "siege" and "camouflage"? In "siege" especially I'd expect long [i:].Zaarin wrote:soldier [ˈsɔʊ̯lʤɹ̩ˁ]
officer [ˈɔˑfɪsɹ̩ˁ]
cavalry [ˈkʰævl̩ɹ̠ˁi]
morale [mɵˈɹ̠ˁæl]
siege [ˈsiʤ]
colonel [ˈkʰɹ̩ˁnl̩]
lieutenant [luˈtʰɛnn̩t]
camouflage [ˈkʰæməˌflɑʒ] or maybe [ˈkʰæmɵˌflɑʒ]
rendezvous [ˌɹ̠ˁɑndɛɪ̯ˈvu] or [ʀɑ̃devu]
sortie [sɔʊ̯ɹ̠ˁˈtiˑ]
JAL
The reason I asked is that you seem to be very precise otherwise (the transcription seems rather narrow).Zaarin wrote:EDIT: As Travis said.
Fair enough. Like I said, vowel length isn't something I tend to think much about since it's not phonemic for my dialect or idiolect.jal wrote:The reason I asked is that you seem to be very precise otherwise (the transcription seems rather narrow).Zaarin wrote:EDIT: As Travis said.
JAL
Isn't higher pitch after phonemically voiceless consonants, and lower pitch after phonemically voiced consonants a general thing in phonetics? IIRC, that's the explanation used for a lot of tonogenesis. As you say, it only becomes phonemic if the contrast between the two types of consonant is lost. It's mentioned as a general thing for English in this Language Log post: Consonant effects on F0 of following vowels There are some differences between what you describe and what Liberman describes at the link: Liberman finds that in his sample, voiced plosives are intermediate between nasals and voiceless plosives, and he doesn't look at the effects of coda consonants at all.Travis B. wrote:This is not a request to have a word pronounced, but just a comment on something I said quite a while back. When I said that there was pitch accent-like phenomenon in my dialect, which clearly sounds completely my-dialect-is-a-special-snowflake-ish, from paying some more attention to it it appears to be allophonic, namely that syllables starting in fortis obstruents or especially ending in fortis plosives (but not fricatives) tend to have a higher pitch than other syllables with similar stress and syllables starting in lenis obstruents or ending in lenis plosives (but not fricatives) tend to have a lower pitch than other syllables with similar stress, and other syllables (e.g. syllables starting with sonorants) are in between, and furthermore a stressed syllable followed by a syllable ending in a fortis plosive where the intervocalic consonant(s) are elided tend to result in a level pitch whereas a stressed syllable followed by a syllable not ending in a fortis plosive where the intervocalic consonant(s) are elided tend to result in a falling pitch. Note that this is synchronic in nature, e.g.. didn't is pronounced as if there were no final /t/ despite having historically had one. Also, while it could become phonemic with subsequent sound change, there is no sign of it being phonemic now.
To me it seems to be clearly fortis obstruents > nasals > lenis obstruents, as in e.g. Ted > Ned > dead. And note that I specifically said fortis versus lenis, not voiceless versus voiced; Ted and dead both start with voiceless consonants for me, distinguished by aspiration.Sumelic wrote:Isn't higher pitch after phonemically voiceless consonants, and lower pitch after phonemically voiced consonants a general thing in phonetics? IIRC, that's the explanation used for a lot of tonogenesis. As you say, it only becomes phonemic if the contrast between the two types of consonant is lost. It's mentioned as a general thing for English in this Language Log post: Consonant effects on F0 of following vowels There are some differences between what you describe and what Liberman describes at the link: Liberman finds that in his sample, voiced plosives are intermediate between nasals and voiceless plosives, and he doesn't look at the effects of coda consonants at all.Travis B. wrote:This is not a request to have a word pronounced, but just a comment on something I said quite a while back. When I said that there was pitch accent-like phenomenon in my dialect, which clearly sounds completely my-dialect-is-a-special-snowflake-ish, from paying some more attention to it it appears to be allophonic, namely that syllables starting in fortis obstruents or especially ending in fortis plosives (but not fricatives) tend to have a higher pitch than other syllables with similar stress and syllables starting in lenis obstruents or ending in lenis plosives (but not fricatives) tend to have a lower pitch than other syllables with similar stress, and other syllables (e.g. syllables starting with sonorants) are in between, and furthermore a stressed syllable followed by a syllable ending in a fortis plosive where the intervocalic consonant(s) are elided tend to result in a level pitch whereas a stressed syllable followed by a syllable not ending in a fortis plosive where the intervocalic consonant(s) are elided tend to result in a falling pitch. Note that this is synchronic in nature, e.g.. didn't is pronounced as if there were no final /t/ despite having historically had one. Also, while it could become phonemic with subsequent sound change, there is no sign of it being phonemic now.
That may be the best description at the phonetic level, but when making comparisons across languages it makes more sense to me to use voiced/voiceless as the phonemic categories. It looks like you do have voiced allophones of these consonants, so I don't see the problem with classifying them as phonemically more "voiced" relative to the "fortis" series. I mean, there's similar things with Icelandic, German varieties, Korean, where you can use the terms "fortis" and "lenis," but whatever you call it, the contrast still has a lot of parallels to the "voiceless/voiced" distinction that exists in other languages. I don't know what the best umbrella term is. Maybe I should have just said "higher VOT, lower VOT."Travis B. wrote: To me it seems to be clearly fortis obstruents > nasals > lenis obstruents, as in e.g. Ted > Ned > dead. And note that I specifically said fortis versus lenis, not voiceless versus voiced; Ted and dead both start with voiceless consonants for me, distinguished by aspiration.
I personally prefer fortis versus lenis because they are more general, allowing one to treat languages with a mixture of aspiration and voicing and length contrasts side by side rather than treating voicing as different from aspiration as different from length. So when you said voiceless versus voiced, what you meant is fortis versus lenis.Sumelic wrote:That may be the best description at the phonetic level, but when making comparisons across languages it makes more sense to me to use voiced/voiceless as the phonemic categories. It looks like you do have voiced allophones of these consonants, so I don't see the problem with classifying them as phonemically more "voiced" relative to the "fortis" series. I mean, there's similar things with Icelandic, German varieties, Korean, where you can use the terms "fortis" and "lenis," but whatever you call it, the contrast still has a lot of parallels to the "voiceless/voiced" distinction that exists in other languages. I don't know what the best umbrella term is. Maybe I should have just said "higher VOT, lower VOT."Travis B. wrote: To me it seems to be clearly fortis obstruents > nasals > lenis obstruents, as in e.g. Ted > Ned > dead. And note that I specifically said fortis versus lenis, not voiceless versus voiced; Ted and dead both start with voiceless consonants for me, distinguished by aspiration.