[kx[ coarticulation?

[meidei]

I was planning to make my first post here be about a conlang, but that would take me ages, I will post a question about articulation.

So, I noticed that when I pronounce /klip/ (the pronunciation of the word <clip> as a loanword in Greek), my /k/ seems to be half-way fricatized, something like /k͡xlip/. At first I though it was aspirated /k/, but it doesn't really sound like it (and in my dialect, to have an aspirated stop it must be a geminate first [k:^h]).
Is it attested or at least logical, or I am just hearing things? Maybe it's simply aspiration (to native Greek speakers, even in dialects with aspirated consonants, [h] and [x] sound similar).

Here's an audiok͡xlip. Please tell me what you hear.

[vec]

I think it's more that your /l/ is mostly unvoiced and perhaps somewhat fricativised.

[meidei]

Thanks. I certainly didn't know about unvoiced /l/s. That would explain the impression of [x] there.

[finlay]

i do that.

it's to do with the transition from one sound to another; there are several things that have to change between /k/ and /l/ and they don't all change at the same time.

it's the same reason that mints and mince are homophones for many english speakers; the closure, nasalisation and voicing all have to change between the two and if the denasalisation happens before the release of the closure, you effectively have [nts] rather than [ns]. subtleties like that aren't picked up in an alphabetic transcription system like the IPA.

[Jipí]

FWIW, to me (German speaker) it just sounds like plain [kl].

What happens for me is that the aspiration of initial [ptk] devoices a following fricative or approximant, so /kl/ becomes [kl̥], and /kr/ [kʁ̥]. Nasals somehow don't seem to be affected as much, only maybe initially (I didn't check a spectrogram, though), so /kn/ is probably something like [kʰ₍n̥].

[Simmalti]

I believe that approximants lose their voicedness when they follow unvoiced aspirated plosives in many dialects.

It happens to /l/'s and /r/'s

[meidei]

Interesting. I saw that devoiced /l/ is mentioned in some descriptions of English phonology but I never read anything about its existence in Greek. Probably I am using different rules for loanwords, since /klopi/ <κλοπή> doesn't give me the same impression of fricativization.

On a slightly offtopic matter, are there resources that can help me train in recognizing the sounds I hear? (I can do it in a very limited extend but I'd like to improve).

[Jetboy]

This might be of some help in learning to identify sounds, or at least learn the IPA.

[makvas]

At least in my dialect, and I'd guess many American dialects, /l/ is completely velar (or even uvular, it's hard to tell) in many positions. <klip> is one of those cases.

[Count Iblis]

Really hard to tell for me, but my best guess is [kxL\_0ip].

[Io]

I think it's more that your /l/ is mostly unvoiced and perhaps somewhat fricativised.

How close am I? http://vocaroo.com/?media=vaqRNGYFaPULGBSwG

It's completely unrelated, I just thought of asking, I made the recording for another place.

[Travis B.]

I likewise tend to often affricate /k/ before /l/ if the /l/ is not turned into an approximant, especially if it is stressed; e.g. I myself pronounce clip as either [ˈk͡xʰʟ̞ɪʔp] or [ˈkʰɰɪʔp].

[Simmalti]

I think it's more that your /l/ is mostly unvoiced and perhaps somewhat fricativised.

How close am I? http://vocaroo.com/?media=vaqRNGYFaPULGBSwG

It's completely unrelated, I just thought of asking, I made the recording for another place.

It's sounds like you're trying to say "Eyjafjallajökull", "Vatnajökull" and "Skaftáreldar".