I was trying to avoid a lot of typing— if you want the whole argument, find the book.Jetboy wrote:Mm? How would γ having a value of /ŋ/ before a labial nasal help explain it having that value before velar stops? I'd think you meant that /gm/ assimilated to /ŋm/ so that γ spread to the pre-velar nasal, but it seems like that would negate the irregular verb part, because if /ŋ/ and /g/ were spelled the same, there wouldn't be any visible orthographic difference.zompist wrote: it explains the somewhat odd use of γ for ŋ before velars.
present / 3s perf / 1s perf
1. lég-omai / lélek-tai / léleg-mai
2. phthégg-omai / ephthégk-tai / ephtheg-mai
Compared to Verb 1, Verb 2 has a nasal ŋ before the final consonant of the root in the first two forms. If <gm> is /gm/, this nasal is lost in the 1s perf. If it's /ŋm/, then verb 2 always retains its nasal.
(As he points out, to be completely regular we'd expect ephthegg-mai; but that would have /ŋŋm/ which gets simplified to /ŋm/.)








