Scandinavian third person
Scandinavian third person
If I am informed correctly the ending for 3rd person singular on a verb in proto-germanic was -D. How did that become -r in North-Germanic languages? Is it a result of a regular sound change? Or influence from the 2nd person singular? And is the Modern English -s related to it? I know that middle English had -eth but could it be that some dialects had -s under viking influence (and then later North-Germanic had s =>r), and that that ending ultimately "won" in modern times? Or is it a completely independent change?
Before you ask I tried Google but I couldn't find any reliable information.
Before you ask I tried Google but I couldn't find any reliable information.
If you read German, this is what I could find online (Anmerkung 4). I don't know whether there is more information than that online, or something more up-to-date than Noreen's grammar. So it looks like the replacement happened after the development /*z/ -> Norse "R". If the replacement of thorn by /r/ would be a sound change, one would expect that development also in the 2nd pl., but Noreen doesn't mention such forms.
The "wenn nicht früher" refers to the Viking time, meaning that it happened in the 8th or 9th century or before. Whether this means it could have happened before *z>R, I don't know.merijn wrote:Thank you! This was the information I was looking for. They do say that this change may have happened earlier if my German is correct (wenn nicht frueher), so it could have happened before the change *z>R.
- Nortaneous
- Sumerul
- Posts: 4544
- Joined: Mon Apr 13, 2009 1:52 am
- Location: the Imperial Corridor
I think both forms were used in different dialects and the -s form eventually took over. Not sure though.merijn wrote:Anyway my other question remains, why did in English the change -eth>s occur?
Siöö jandeng raiglin zåbei tandiüłåd;
nää džunnfin kukuch vklaivei sivei tåd.
Chei. Chei. Chei. Chei. Chei. Chei. Chei.
nää džunnfin kukuch vklaivei sivei tåd.
Chei. Chei. Chei. Chei. Chei. Chei. Chei.
That is correct, but it doesn't answer the question - the dialects where it started didn't have a general development OE /T/ > /s/, so we still need an explanation why this development happened in those dialects.Nortaneous wrote:I think both forms were used in different dialects and the -s form eventually took over. Not sure though.merijn wrote:Anyway my other question remains, why did in English the change -eth>s occur?
Merijn, if I understand you correctly, you want to check whether the English change can be linked to the Norse change?
- Skomakar'n
- Smeric
- Posts: 1273
- Joined: Tue Aug 18, 2009 8:05 pm
German & Dutch -t have nothing to do with Proto-Germanic *-z / Norse -r. Like older English -th, they go directly back to Proto-Germanic *-T / -D from PIE *-ti.Skomakar'n wrote:So would I.
I, too, have thought of a connection between the varieties, and how *-z could form English -s, German/Dutch -t and Northern -r.
- Skomakar'n
- Smeric
- Posts: 1273
- Joined: Tue Aug 18, 2009 8:05 pm
Yeah. I know that know.hwhatting wrote:German & Dutch -t have nothing to do with Proto-Germanic *-z / Norse -r. Like older English -th, they go directly back to Proto-Germanic *-T / -D from PIE *-ti.Skomakar'n wrote:So would I.
I, too, have thought of a connection between the varieties, and how *-z could form English -s, German/Dutch -t and Northern -r.
I just wanted to state that I have thought of this too.
I actually didn't know of -ð in Old Norse third person before reading this, though, but I did know of the variation es of er.
- Skomakar'n
- Smeric
- Posts: 1273
- Joined: Tue Aug 18, 2009 8:05 pm
You're not totally off, Noreen posits -ð for Proto-Norse. But the only (to me) clear attestations he adduces from Runic and later Norse show -Þ.Skomakar'n wrote:Maybe my memory fails me.Aszev wrote:There was no such thing.Skomakar'n wrote:I actually didn't know of -ð in Old Norse third person before reading this, though
I am basing this off of something I think I read last month.
- Skomakar'n
- Smeric
- Posts: 1273
- Joined: Tue Aug 18, 2009 8:05 pm
Those are often allophones, though, and generally, the orthography doesn't permit the usage of <þ> in final position, so I'd prefer <ð>, even if they actually had *[θ] there.hwhatting wrote:You're not totally off, Noreen posits -ð for Proto-Norse. But the only (to me) clear attestations he adduces from Runic and later Norse show -Þ.Skomakar'n wrote:Maybe my memory fails me.Aszev wrote:There was no such thing.Skomakar'n wrote:I actually didn't know of -ð in Old Norse third person before reading this, though
I am basing this off of something I think I read last month.
That's just me being stubborn, though.