North American English historical /oU_^/
Posted: Sat Aug 07, 2010 10:08 pm
Historical /oʊ̯/ not before /r/ in North American English is classically described as being [oʊ̯], with some dialects having [oː]*. The latter is the pronunciation I have in everyday speech, and the former is the pronunciation I am familiar with in localized versions of General American in the Upper Midwest. However, from living out the last nine months here in Maryland, it seems that most General American-like variety-speakers out here actually have something more akin to [ɤʊ̯] or [ʌʊ̯], and that is if they actually preserve backness. However, many speakers seem to at least somewhat centralize such, and I have found myself starting to pick up a pronunciation that can probably be best described as [ɜʉ̞̯] or even [ɐʉ̞̯].
Note that this is not the pronunciation [ɵʉ̯] (or even [œy̯]) I have described some younger people in the Milwaukee area as having picked up, which starts out fully rounded rather than unrounded, and which both starts and ends in a more closed fashion. This pronunciation is likely a matter of the dialect borrowing of a pronunciation more akin to [ɜʉ̞̯] (or even [ɛʉ̞̯]) but with clear interference from the fully rounded and closer vowel used both in Milwaukee dialect and in localized General American.
Conversely, people out here in Maryland seem to identify my Canadian Raised-pronunciation of historical /aʊ̯/, [ɑ̟o̯], with historical /oʊ̯/, even if they do still perceive a distinction between that and my pronunciation of historical /oʊ̯/. This further makes me think that the are very much used to pronunciations of historical /oʊ̯/ with a more open and fully unrounded nucleus.
All this makes me wonder, though, whether the description of historical /oʊ̯/ not before /r/ in North American English as being [oʊ̯] can actually be considered to be truly accurate today outside of more conservative General American and localized General American in areas whose own English dialects fully preserve the roundness, backness, and closeness of historical /oʊ̯/. Can we say that much of North American English that has a diphthongal pronunciation for historical /oʊ̯/ does not necessarily have [oʊ̯] for it but rather is likely to have realizations that are centralized, partly or fully, have unrounded onsets, and/or have more open onsets? Conversely, can we say that the supposed distinction between a North American English [oʊ̯] and an English English [əʊ̯] for historical /oʊ̯/ does not hold as true as it once may have?
* I am ignoring the loss of historical phonemic vowel quantity in this post.
Note that this is not the pronunciation [ɵʉ̯] (or even [œy̯]) I have described some younger people in the Milwaukee area as having picked up, which starts out fully rounded rather than unrounded, and which both starts and ends in a more closed fashion. This pronunciation is likely a matter of the dialect borrowing of a pronunciation more akin to [ɜʉ̞̯] (or even [ɛʉ̞̯]) but with clear interference from the fully rounded and closer vowel used both in Milwaukee dialect and in localized General American.
Conversely, people out here in Maryland seem to identify my Canadian Raised-pronunciation of historical /aʊ̯/, [ɑ̟o̯], with historical /oʊ̯/, even if they do still perceive a distinction between that and my pronunciation of historical /oʊ̯/. This further makes me think that the are very much used to pronunciations of historical /oʊ̯/ with a more open and fully unrounded nucleus.
All this makes me wonder, though, whether the description of historical /oʊ̯/ not before /r/ in North American English as being [oʊ̯] can actually be considered to be truly accurate today outside of more conservative General American and localized General American in areas whose own English dialects fully preserve the roundness, backness, and closeness of historical /oʊ̯/. Can we say that much of North American English that has a diphthongal pronunciation for historical /oʊ̯/ does not necessarily have [oʊ̯] for it but rather is likely to have realizations that are centralized, partly or fully, have unrounded onsets, and/or have more open onsets? Conversely, can we say that the supposed distinction between a North American English [oʊ̯] and an English English [əʊ̯] for historical /oʊ̯/ does not hold as true as it once may have?
* I am ignoring the loss of historical phonemic vowel quantity in this post.