Not sure if this should be here or in C&C, but anyway.
Let us postulate a language in whose earlier stages there was one noun role which denoted location ("locative") and another which denoted source or origin ("ablative"). Now let us postulate that from these roles the language developed two cases for possession, one for alienable possession ("genitive") and one for inalienable possession ("partitive"). So, we could have:
locative -> genitive, ablative -> partitive
or:
locative -> partitive, ablative -> genitive
Is one of these more likely to occur than the other, whether statistically (i.e. "more languages do it than the other") or conceptually ("the meanings are more similar this way round)?
FWIW, I understand that Finnish lends support to the first, but I may be wrong.
Of Possessive Cases and Spatial Noun Roles
Of Possessive Cases and Spatial Noun Roles
Zompist's Markov generator wrote:it was labelled" orange marmalade," but that is unutterably hideous.
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Re: Of Possessive Cases and Spatial Noun Roles
Finnish partitive isn't used to mark possession, nor alienable or inalienable.
< Cev> My people we use cars. I come from a very proud car culture-- every part of the car is used, nothing goes to waste. When my people first saw the car, generations ago, we called it šuŋka wakaŋ-- meaning "automated mobile".
Re: Of Possessive Cases and Spatial Noun Roles
In that case my memory is faultyMiekko wrote:Finnish partitive isn't used to mark possession, nor alienable or inalienable.
Zompist's Markov generator wrote:it was labelled" orange marmalade," but that is unutterably hideous.
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Re: Of Possessive Cases and Spatial Noun Roles
On a totally unrelated note, who are you? What was your old name?
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Re: Of Possessive Cases and Spatial Noun Roles
That would be bricka.Dingbats wrote:On a totally unrelated note, who are you? What was your old name?
