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Question about Indo-European */t d/

Posted: Tue Nov 09, 2010 9:29 pm
by Bedelato
Yeah, two new topics in a row. I have lots of stuff to talk about.

My question is, how exactly did /t d/ in English become apical alveolar stops when in PIE they were clearly dental (as evidenced by the fact that PIE */t/ became Germanic */θ/ rather than, say, */s/)?

Does anyone know details about the articulation of /t d/ in other Germanic languages, or in other IE langs in general?

Re: Question about Indo-European */t d/

Posted: Tue Nov 09, 2010 9:38 pm
by dhok
I suspect it happened to differentiate /t d/ from /T D/.

Re: Question about Indo-European */t d/

Posted: Wed Nov 10, 2010 8:24 am
by Morrígan
If they were originally apical (quite common), a shift to dental would not be a stretch - this would also, of course, be more salient in its contrast with the presumably laminal *s.

Re: Question about Indo-European */t d/

Posted: Thu Nov 18, 2010 12:47 pm
by Octavià
Bedelato wrote:My question is, how exactly did /t d/ in English become apical alveolar stops when in PIE they were clearly dental (as evidenced by the fact that PIE */t/ became Germanic */θ/ rather than, say, */s/)?
In Pre-Proto-Germanic, the reflexes of PIE voiceless stops *p,*t,*k were probably aspirated *ph,*th,*kh which later became fricatives *f,*θ,*x. Probably this had something to do with the pre-IE substrate upon which Proto-Germanic was built.
Bedelato wrote:Does anyone know details about the articulation of /t d/ in other Germanic languages, or in other IE langs in general?
In Spanish and other Romance languages, /t, d/ are dental instead of alveolar. Also Spanish /s/ is apical in std varieties, but not in Southern and American ones.