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How are languages usually considered relatives? For example: Proto-Indo-European = Italic = Latin-Faliscan = Latin. What makes Latin-Faliscan that different from the other languages in the area if Latin and Faliscan are considered two different languages, but they are related to the other Italic languages? Was it just maybe a word order changing, something that minute? And with that, would French or Italian go after Latin in that list?

It's all to do with things like deriving, sound changes, and the morphology. For example:

PROTO-EXAMPLIAN:
t > x before

Languages could evolve maybe because the P-Examplian tribe split in two:

TEMESE:
t > x > tʰ

SIPPONAN:
t > x > c

The Tem tribe starts to produce slang words and they start to phase the older words out and they become archaic and no longer use:

OLD-TEMESE > TEMESE

The Sippon tribe has an interior war between huts and one of the new clans, the Wanwan, like to party with lots of wine, so now they have a lot to say in little time, so they then start to produce sandhi, consonantal mutations, and they're language becomes either isolating or agglutinative:

SIPPON* > WANWANI**:
* na chumaw potín
[na tʃumaw potɪn]
1S.NOM like party-INF
I like to party.
** nasumarotí
[nasumaɹotɪ]
1S.NOM-like-party-INF
I like to party.

You can see there that w+p > ɹ, tʃ > s, and then they long all final <n>s.
So, language family wise, we now have:
Let's just saw that the Tem tribe also split and one of the new tribes, the Kan, started to become very philosphical and came up with a new morphology that was very polysynthetic. Like the Wanwani, they also came up with sandhi, mutations, and they also produced vowel harmony.
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AND THAT MY FRIEND IS A BAD EXAMPLE OF A LANGUAGE FAMILY.

Now I understand. Thank you, very much