Native speakers giving misleading information

Discussion of natural languages, or language in general.
zompist
Boardlord
Boardlord
Posts: 3368
Joined: Thu Sep 12, 2002 8:26 pm
Location: In the den
Contact:

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by zompist »

M Mira wrote:
zompist wrote:... some informant claimed that he never used "any more" in a positive sense ("Every time we leave the house anymore, I play [this] game"), and caught him using it in recordings. .

Geoffrey Sampson likes to tell the story of when he was arguing double center embedding was not possible in English, and someone asked "But don't you find that sentences that people you know produce are easier to understand?" ...
In the first sentence, can the "anymore" be removed without changing its meaning?
Hard to say for sure because I don't have this in my dialect, but my understanding is that it's much like "these days" or "since [something happened]". Which is arguably what the negative "any more" means too.
For the second, does it still mean the same thing if I replace "people you know produce" with "produced by people you know"?
Yes. For unknown reasons, this construction is quite difficult. Yet a single embedding is easy enough: "The states Cruz won will be important later."

User avatar
Frislander
Avisaru
Avisaru
Posts: 836
Joined: Mon Feb 29, 2016 6:34 am
Location: The North

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Frislander »

I've just come back from holiday in Wales, and have some weird things to tell from this.

The first is something which I heard twice: once from a lady who definitely wasn't a native keeper and again from a bookshop-keeper who I'm pretty sure was. They described Welsh as a "very phonetic language". Of course Welsh, and indeed most language, can be described as "phonetic": it uses sound as a medium of communication, though why that would be modifiable by "very" is anyone's guess. But of course they don't mean that; what they mean is that the orthography is relatively representational, that is, it efficiently represents that sounds of the language.

I also found this in a book called "Speak Welsh", a phrasebook with a basic grammar on the front, purchasable from newsagents and bookshops in Wales, which I presume was written by a native speaker: "Welsh has more vowels than English." cf. the many literate English speakers who don't realise that English does not have five vowels.

I have also found this in a BBC Learn Welsh grammar guide: "There are no diphthongs as in English; that is, two vowels used to produce one sound (as in friend, cheat, pour, coot)." Here the problem is a confusion between "diphthong" and "digraph": both Welsh and English have diphthongs, but the English examples referred to actually consist of digraphs, which Welsh doesn't have.
https://frislander.tumblr.com/

First known on here as Karero

Vijay
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 2244
Joined: Sat Feb 06, 2016 3:25 pm
Location: Austin, TX, USA

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Vijay »

Native speakers of Malayalam also claim that the orthography is phonetic. It isn't. Here's an example.

Yng
Avisaru
Avisaru
Posts: 880
Joined: Fri Jul 03, 2009 3:17 pm
Location: Llundain

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Yng »

Karero wrote:I've just come back from holiday in Wales, and have some weird things to tell from this.

The first is something which I heard twice: once from a lady who definitely wasn't a native keeper and again from a bookshop-keeper who I'm pretty sure was. They described Welsh as a "very phonetic language". Of course Welsh, and indeed most language, can be described as "phonetic": it uses sound as a medium of communication, though why that would be modifiable by "very" is anyone's guess. But of course they don't mean that; what they mean is that the orthography is relatively representational, that is, it efficiently represents that sounds of the language.
a 'bookshop-keeper'? Yeah 'phonetic' has entered the vocabulary of basically everyone in Wales thanks to constant claims that Welsh has a 'phonetic alphabet' or is a 'phonetic language' in the sense that it is spelt as it sounds. This is actually nonsense - the only sense in which it is true is that there is an increasingly common 'standard' taught in textbooks and schools (even Welsh-medium schools if they're in areas which aren't very Welsh-speaking) which is based on spelling pronunciations. It's still markedly better than English, though.
I also found this in a book called "Speak Welsh", a phrasebook with a basic grammar on the front, purchasable from newsagents and bookshops in Wales, which I presume was written by a native speaker: "Welsh has more vowels than English." cf. the many literate English speakers who don't realise that English does not have five vowels.
well, in terms of 'letters that represent vowels' - which is definitely a meaning of 'vowels' - this is true. It's kind of annoying when people get snobby about other people misusing technical terms in a way that is actually just their common signification (I have an acquaintance who calls himself an anarchist and makes a habit of writing posts on Facebook where he dramatically eyerolls at people using the term 'anarchy' negatively even though this is the word's normal and etymological sense). That said, of course, this can lead to conceptual confusion in this sort of context.

Incidentally, I think Welsh probably does have more pure vowel phonemes than many English varieties - /a e i o u A E I O U 1 1: @/ (13) is probably the maximal number, although most of the tense/lax long/short quality-ish distinctions between e.g. /i I/ are largely environment-conditioned. We often get people making quite worn-out jokes about Welsh having no vowels (because of words with w and y).
I have also found this in a BBC Learn Welsh grammar guide: "There are no diphthongs as in English; that is, two vowels used to produce one sound (as in friend, cheat, pour, coot)." Here the problem is a confusion between "diphthong" and "digraph": both Welsh and English have diphthongs, but the English examples referred to actually consist of digraphs, which Welsh doesn't have.
Yeah - again, though, 'diphthong' is regularly used to mean 'two vowels put together'. In phonetics teaching manuals for primary schools you will find the same usage of diphthong = digraph.
كان يا ما كان / يا صمت العشية / قمري هاجر في الصبح بعيدا / في العيون العسلية

tà yi póbo tsùtsùr ciivà dè!

short texts in Cuhbi

Risha Cuhbi grammar

User avatar
Frislander
Avisaru
Avisaru
Posts: 836
Joined: Mon Feb 29, 2016 6:34 am
Location: The North

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Frislander »

Yng wrote:We often get people making quite worn-out jokes about Welsh having no vowels (because of words with w and y).
Yeah, having seen things like, I don't know, Nuxalk, I find that particular joke to be very wearisome.
https://frislander.tumblr.com/

First known on here as Karero

User avatar
Vlürch
Sanci
Sanci
Posts: 51
Joined: Mon Mar 21, 2016 5:42 am
Location: Finland

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Vlürch »

A Japanese friend of mine likes to fuck with people in just about any way he can, including language. I've never met him in person and I'm actually pretty sure I'd get really annoyed quickly if I did, but it's incredible how he comes up with some really deep symbolic stuff and neologisms out of literally anything and I have no idea how his brain processes information for him to be able to just make up an entire language and culture as a conversation goes and for it all to tie together in a convincing way. That's one of the reasons I look up to him, I can't pull something like that off without giving it away after a moment or two. As for Japanese, he's a master troll.

It took me ages to finally realise that he's fucking with me when I asked him to teach me some Japanese. Among some of the stuff I remember, he told me that the most formal, polite and humble second person pronoun is 塵 (じん/jin) when it really means filth. This, he explained, was because it reminds people that nothing in the physical world is as pure as in the afterlife and that it's all temporary, while at the same time 人 (じん/jin) means "person", so it's also an expression of equality. I didn't use it because I don't really talk to Japanese people much even online and generally don't care about being too polite, though. Also things like the /r/ being always [ɾ], never [ɺ] or anything else except for being trilled in angry and/or commanding speech.

On the other hand, I've probably given some misleading information about Finnish occasionally without even realising it, since I happen to speak slightly differently from the standard. I mean, of course dialects and slangs and whatnot aren't inherently wrong, but technically they are taught to be wrong at school and so for a person like me who's born and raised in Helsinki with some summers in Savo to pronounce "metsä" (forest) like /metːæ/ or /met͡ʃæ/ is just weird, but for some reason I do and I've probably told someone that [ts] can be pronounced [tː] or [t͡ʃ] or something.

User avatar
Jonlang
Avisaru
Avisaru
Posts: 305
Joined: Tue Mar 14, 2006 11:21 am
Location: Cymru
Contact:

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Jonlang »

Frislander wrote:
Yng wrote:We often get people making quite worn-out jokes about Welsh having no vowels (because of words with w and y).
Yeah, having seen things like, I don't know, Nuxalk, I find that particular joke to be very wearisome.
This reminds me of a Jimmy Carr joke where he says something like "a word that has three Ls and it's pronounced phlegm". :roll:

And on the subject of Welsh spellings, this was in the news today: http://goo.gl/UxsfTh.
My conlangery Twitter: @Jonlang_
Me? I'm just a lawn-mower; you can tell me by the way I walk.

User avatar
Qwynegold
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 1606
Joined: Thu May 24, 2007 11:34 pm
Location: Stockholm

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Qwynegold »

Something I read recently somewhere on the internet: Swedish is more expressive than many other languages because it has the three extra letters Å, Ä and Ö. :roll:
dyolf wrote:And on the subject of Welsh spellings, this was in the news today: http://goo.gl/UxsfTh.
Lol, that title (Cadair Idris sign campaign to name mountain Cader Idris) was a garden path. I read it as Cadair (given name) Idris (surname) sign (V.) campaign to name mountain Cader Idris.
Image
My most recent quiz:
Eurovision Song Contest 2018

User avatar
Curlyjimsam
Lebom
Lebom
Posts: 205
Joined: Wed Dec 29, 2004 11:57 am
Location: Elsewhere
Contact:

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Curlyjimsam »

Richard W wrote:
vokzhen wrote:"I" has to either be the sole subject, or come after "and."
That's partly a politeness rule - "Don't put yourself first."
I'm not sure about that - I and your mother is pretty bad for me, and not at all in an "it's sounds rude" way but in an "that's not grammatical" sort of way. I wonder if the "politeness rule" might have come about as a way to try and explain the pattern, but it really has some other origin. Or else it really did have its origins in politeness, but the dispreference for I and has become so strong that it becomes conventionalised and speakers like me are no longer aware of the origins.

(I note that I do not have the same intuitions about me and your mother - that's definitely OK, though I might be more inclined to use your mother and me).

gmalivuk
Lebom
Lebom
Posts: 114
Joined: Fri Aug 29, 2008 10:24 am

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by gmalivuk »

Yeah, the likelihood of the politeness explanation has always been weakened for me by the grammaticality of "me and". If politeness explained the origin of the grammar, it seems like it should have applied equally to subjects and objects.

Vijay
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 2244
Joined: Sat Feb 06, 2016 3:25 pm
Location: Austin, TX, USA

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Vijay »

From what I remember of the prescribed rule, it is applied equally to subjects and objects, and you're only ever supposed to say "X and I" (subject) or "X and me" (object), never "me and X." Of course, there's also the complication that people have conflated subject and object when trying to follow this rule, so they use "X and I" everywhere instead.

Travis B.
Sumerul
Sumerul
Posts: 3570
Joined: Mon Jun 20, 2005 12:47 pm
Location: Milwaukee, US

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Travis B. »

Except that in everyday speech me always comes first if X is qualified with my; also in everyday speech me is very commonly used for subjects in general with combined with a conjunction.
Dibotahamdn duthma jallni agaynni ra hgitn lakrhmi.
Amuhawr jalla vowa vta hlakrhi hdm duthmi xaja.
Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro.

Vijay
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 2244
Joined: Sat Feb 06, 2016 3:25 pm
Location: Austin, TX, USA

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Vijay »

Travis B. wrote:Except that in everyday speech me always comes first if X is qualified with my
Very often, yes. Not always though.

User avatar
Imralu
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 1640
Joined: Tue Mar 28, 2006 9:14 pm
Location: Berlin, Germany

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Imralu »

I've had Germans tell me that hast and hasst are pronounced differently ... and ist and isst ... always telling me that the doubled consonants are pronounced "a bit longer".
Yng wrote:(I have an acquaintance who calls himself an anarchist and makes a habit of writing posts on Facebook where he dramatically eyerolls at people using the term 'anarchy' negatively even though this is the word's normal and etymological sense).
A girl I met told me that she stumbled across an anarchist bookshop and I made a joke about stealing the books she wanted and then burning the bookshop down because there are no rules and then a guy gave me this big lecture about what anarchy actually is. I really wish I said something like "Who are you to tell me what anarchy is or isn't?" but instead I just
Image
Glossing Abbreviations: COMP = comparative, C = complementiser, ACS / ICS = accessible / inaccessible, GDV = gerundive, SPEC / NSPC = specific / non-specific
________
MY MUSIC

Vijay
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 2244
Joined: Sat Feb 06, 2016 3:25 pm
Location: Austin, TX, USA

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Vijay »

Imralu wrote:I've had Germans tell me that hast and hasst are pronounced differently ... and ist and isst ... always telling me that the doubled consonants are pronounced "a bit longer".
Duuuuu, du ha[s:t], du ha[s:t] mich, du ha[s:t] mich gefragt...ups. :P

Sumelic
Avisaru
Avisaru
Posts: 385
Joined: Sat Mar 28, 2015 7:05 pm

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Sumelic »

Imralu wrote:I've had Germans tell me that hast and hasst are pronounced differently ... and ist and isst ... always telling me that the doubled consonants are pronounced "a bit longer".
Are you certain they aren't right (in terms of averages)? The word/syllable-final neutralization of voicing contrasts in German is apparently incomplete, which really surprised me when I learned about it. (The most unbelievable thing I've read in papers about incomplete neutralization is that the adverb "weg," which has a phonologically short vowel and no inflected forms where a phonetically voiced consonant surfaces, still shows evidence of having a phonologically voiced/lenis final consonant. I forget which paper mentioned that; I can't find it in the Winter and Röttger paper that I linked to.)
Last edited by Sumelic on Mon Aug 22, 2016 11:10 am, edited 1 time in total.

Cedh
Sanno
Sanno
Posts: 938
Joined: Tue Nov 14, 2006 10:30 am
Location: Tübingen, Germany
Contact:

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Cedh »

Imralu wrote:I've had Germans tell me that hast and hasst are pronounced differently ... and ist and isst ... always telling me that the doubled consonants are pronounced "a bit longer".
Even if there's no actual difference in underlying phonemic structure, there may well be a phonetic difference between these, although probably not consistently: hast and ist are often used as auxiliary verbs, where they are prosodically more prone to reduction than hasst and isst, which are almost always the main verb in their clause. The resulting difference is not that "the doubled consonants are pronounced a bit longer" though, but that the auxiliary versions of hast and ist tend to lose the final [t]:

Du hast mein Buch gelesen.
[duˌhɐsmae̯mˈbuːχɡəˌleːzn̩]
"You have read my book."

Du hasst mein Buch.
[duˈhɐstmae̯mˌbuːχ]
"You hate my book."

Karl ist heute angekommen.
[ˈkʰaːlɪsˌhɔɪ̯təˈʔaŋɡəˌkʰɔmm̩]
"Karl arrived today."

Karl isst heute Reis.
[ˈkʰaːlɪstˌhɔɪ̯təˈʁae̯s]
"Karl eats rice today."


(EDIT: added examples with colloquial pronunciation)

User avatar
Imralu
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 1640
Joined: Tue Mar 28, 2006 9:14 pm
Location: Berlin, Germany

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Imralu »

Ah, yeah ... all true, but I really don't think that's what they're talking about.
Glossing Abbreviations: COMP = comparative, C = complementiser, ACS / ICS = accessible / inaccessible, GDV = gerundive, SPEC / NSPC = specific / non-specific
________
MY MUSIC

hwhatting
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 2315
Joined: Fri Sep 13, 2002 2:49 am
Location: Bonn, Germany

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by hwhatting »

Imralu wrote:Ah, yeah ... all true, but I really don't think that's what they're talking about.
I don't think that the original assertion is true, and at least in Standard German, there is no phonemic consonant length at all (I don't know about the dialects). Writing double consonants is a historical orthographical tradition, inherited from a period (MHG) when there still was phonemic consonat length; I wouldn't be astonished if some people who don't know any better would base statements as the one you mention on the orthography.
There are dialects (and regional pronunciations of Standard German) where the pairs <i>Vst / Vsst</i> are kept distinct, but not by maintaining a length distinction - in those Southern German varieties -Vst is [Vʃt] and -Vsst is [Vst].

Travis B.
Sumerul
Sumerul
Posts: 3570
Joined: Mon Jun 20, 2005 12:47 pm
Location: Milwaukee, US

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Travis B. »

Umm don't Austro-Bavarian and Alemannic varieties have phonemic consonant length?
Dibotahamdn duthma jallni agaynni ra hgitn lakrhmi.
Amuhawr jalla vowa vta hlakrhi hdm duthmi xaja.
Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro.

hwhatting
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 2315
Joined: Fri Sep 13, 2002 2:49 am
Location: Bonn, Germany

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by hwhatting »

Travis B. wrote:Umm don't Austro-Bavarian and Alemannic varieties have phonemic consonant length?
I dimly remember reading something about a consonant length distinction in Bavarian, but I don't know enough about those dialects. In any case, I was talking about Standard German and about regional pronunciation variations of Standard German. One can frequently hear Southern Germans use [Vʃt] for -Vst(-) even when they speak Standard German, but I've never encountered anyone maintaining a consonant length distinction when speaking Standard German.

Astraios
Sumerul
Sumerul
Posts: 2974
Joined: Fri Mar 05, 2010 2:38 am
Location: Israel

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Astraios »

Standard (Northern) Yiddish has kept “(you) have” and “(you) hate” distinct due to different vowel developments preceding the loss of contrastive length:

OHG: habes → Proto-Yid: *[haːbest] → */hɔb(ə)st/ → Yid: (du) host;
OHG: hazzos → Proto-Yid: *[has̪ːest] → */has(ə)st/ → Yid: (du) hast.

Other dialects merge the long vowels differently, like Southern (di) hust ~ (di) hast, but in Western Yiddish, short and lengthened */a/ didn’t split, like in Standard German, so it would have also had (du) hast for both.

In “is” and “eats”, though, the vowel distinction is only maintained through the loss of the singular umlaut, though the words wouldn’t have turned out identical even if it had kept the umlaut, due to loss of the /t/ in “is”:

OHG: ist → Proto-Yid: *[is(t)] → */is/ → Yid: iz;
OHG: izzit → Proto-Yid: *[is̪ːit] → */es(ə)t/ → Yid: est (cf. OHG 3Pl: ezzant → Yid: esn).

I don’t know whether any other variety of German does one or both of those.

User avatar
linguoboy
Sanno
Sanno
Posts: 3681
Joined: Tue Sep 17, 2002 9:00 am
Location: Rogers Park/Evanston

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by linguoboy »

Travis B. wrote:Umm don't Austro-Bavarian and Alemannic varieties have phonemic consonant length?
Not the Alemannic variety I speak (Badisch). Could this be another crazy relic in Highest Alemannic?

I thought what Austro-Bavarian had was a system where the fortis or lenis character of a post-vocalic stop depended on the historical length of the vowel rather than the historical nature of the consonant. But I'm not really familiar with the phonology of these dialects beyond the basics.

Travis B.
Sumerul
Sumerul
Posts: 3570
Joined: Mon Jun 20, 2005 12:47 pm
Location: Milwaukee, US

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Travis B. »

linguoboy wrote:
Travis B. wrote:Umm don't Austro-Bavarian and Alemannic varieties have phonemic consonant length?
Not the Alemannic variety I speak (Badisch). Could this be another crazy relic in Highest Alemannic?
I was referring more to High Alemannic than to Low Alemannic, yes.
linguoboy wrote:I thought what Austro-Bavarian had was a system where the fortis or lenis character of a post-vocalic stop depended on the historical length of the vowel rather than the historical nature of the consonant. But I'm not really familiar with the phonology of these dialects beyond the basics.
From what I remember reading, it depends on the exact dialect of Austro-Bavarian, but that at least in Central Austro-Bavarian vowel length has been lost altogether, and consonant length reflects (I do not remember how exactly) both historical vowel length and historical consonant length. (I could be wrong here though.)
Dibotahamdn duthma jallni agaynni ra hgitn lakrhmi.
Amuhawr jalla vowa vta hlakrhi hdm duthmi xaja.
Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro.

User avatar
Imralu
Smeric
Smeric
Posts: 1640
Joined: Tue Mar 28, 2006 9:14 pm
Location: Berlin, Germany

Re: Native speakers giving misleading information

Post by Imralu »

Astraios wrote:OHG: habes
OHG: hazzos
So ... where does the t come from?
Glossing Abbreviations: COMP = comparative, C = complementiser, ACS / ICS = accessible / inaccessible, GDV = gerundive, SPEC / NSPC = specific / non-specific
________
MY MUSIC

Post Reply