- The sound of initial/final or pre-voiceless consonant s or intervocalic ss, generally given as /s/
- The sound of intervocalic or pre-voiced consonant s, generally given as /z/
- The sound of ç or of c before e or i, generally given as /ts/
- The sound of z, generally given as /dz/
- The sound of x, generally given as /ʃ/
- The sound of j or of g before e or i, generally given as /ʒ/
Here's where I get confused: As I recall, the ch sound, or /tʃ/ in modern Spanish, derives ultimately from simplifying various Vulgar Latin consonant clusters in ways that produced [t] plus a palatalizing element, e.g. [kt] >[jt] > [tʃ]. What was the value of this sound in the era of Old Spanish that had the six above sibilants? If it was an affricate, why didn't it deaffricate with the others? If it wasn't an affricate, what was it at that time? Was it a palatal or a palatalized dental stop?