Quick question about French
Posted: Mon Jan 01, 2018 10:05 am
Are there any words with /yj/, which would presumably be spelled <uille>?
Are there any cases at all where /e/ or /ə/ occurs before a word-final consonant in standard French?Ryusenshi wrote: Among the vowels of French:
- /a i ɛ ɑ ɔ œ u/ can readily appear before a final /j/ (maille, fille, paye, bâille, momoï, feuille, bouille).
- /o e ə ø/ can't, but that's not very surprising since they rarely appear before a final consonant.
Looking up Latin words ending in "ulia" on Perseus, I found the place name Āpūlia/Appūlia which does seem to have a variant "Appuille" that was used at some point (at least in English!) although I don't know how it was pronounced. In contemporary French, "appuille" seems to occur as a misspelling of "appuie", which is pronounced with /ɥi/.Prononc. et Orth. : [ʒ ɥijε]. Prononc. mod. fin xviies. sous l'influence de la graph. (Buben 1935 § 62). Vieilli : [ʒyjε] ds Fér. Crit. t. 2 1787 et Gattel 1841 mais non ds Fér. 1768 ni Land. 1834 ([ʒ ɥi-]); [ʒy-] ou [ʒ ɥi-] ds Littré, DG, Passy 1914, Barbeau-Rodhe 1930; [-εt] ds Land. 1834 et Passy 1914, rejeté comme vieilli par Mart. Comment prononce 1913, p. 326. Att. ds Ac. dep. 1694.
Actually, the sequence (well, its analogue/-ɥij/ anyway) occurs word-finally in aiguille.Ryusenshi wrote:I can confirm that there are no words with the sequence /yj/ word-finally. The words in Zompist's list are either written -ouill, or have another vowel afterwards so the sequence is /ɥijV/.
Wouldn't that just be because (standard) French isn't generally considered to have diphthongs?Ryusenshi wrote:I thought about it some time ago: I was trying to explain why French maille can be analyzed as three phonemes /m a j/ while English my is better analyzed as two phonemes /m aɪ/.
Nope. There's a clear phonological constraint against that, reflected in morphology:Sumelic wrote:Are there any cases at all where /e/ or /ə/ occurs before a word-final consonant in standard French?
Interesting.Sumelic wrote:My understanding is that /y/ in French usually comes from Latin /uː/. And final /j/ in nouns usually comes from Latin /lia/ or /lea/, which developed to /ʎə/.
Yep. I should have taken another example: oreille unambiguously has /ɛj/.Sumelic wrote:In some verbs, like "paye", final /j/ comes from words that lenited Latin intervocalic "c" or "g". But some people say "paie" instead, with no /j/. As far as I know, the same applies to other -ayer verbs.
True, but it's still not /yj/.Circeus wrote:Actually, the sequence (well, its analogue/-ɥij/ anyway) occurs word-finally in aiguille.
True. As I said, that depends on the dialect.Circeus wrote:You'll also hear the same sounds when people pronounce verbs in -uyer in a nonstandard way with -j instead of -i, again with /-ɥij/. That alternative pronunciation is probably the source of the misspelling "appuille" that Sumelic notes (i.e. eye dialect). There would be pretty much no reason for the -lle to show up if the speaker's pronunciation was /ɥi/ (i.e. as in the standard appuie).
Well, that's precisely the question: why do we consider that English has diphthongs but French doesn't? As far as pronunciation goes, English my and French maille aren't that different. The reason has to do with phonology, not phonetics.Circeus wrote:Wouldn't that just be because (standard) French isn't generally considered to have diphthongs?