This is referring to the OHG sentence phigboum habeta sum giflanzotan, "somebody had planted a fig tree", with reference to the present perfect formation with "to have" and the past participle. I'm not aware that Greek ever had such a thing; can anyone provide enlightenment?According to Salmons 2012, Lockwood 1968 wrote:It is too obviously a word-for-word rendering of the Latin sentence, which for that matter, is an equally servile calque on the Greek.
Discussion of natural languages, or language in general.
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Zompist's Markov generator wrote:it was labelled" orange marmalade," but that is unutterably hideous.
The Greek has συκῆν εῖχέν τις πεφυτευμένην, so yes, Greek has have + participle, but retains the possessive meaning as in “someone had a figtree [which was] planted [in their garden]”, rather than the present perfect “someone has planted a figtree” (according to here).