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According to some linguists lateral offglides, such as /kˡ/, are no different than clusters, such as /kl/. By this logic, would /nʲ/ be the same as /ɲ/?

Edit: Inserted "lateral offglides"

Strictly speaking, [nʲ] is a palatalized alveolar nasal stop whereas [ɲ] is a palatal nasal stop, i.e. they differ in primary POA. Of course in reality things are not this clear-cut.

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Dibotahamdn duthma jallni agaynni ra hgitn lakrhmi.
Amuhawr jalla vowa vta hlakrhi hdm duthmi xaja.
Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro. Irdro.

I don't think so, assuming you're concerned about the phonological details. The act of denying there's any actual difference between [kˡ] and [kl] relies on the characteristics of lateralisation, while [nʲ] and [ɲ] do differ in the place of articulation. Moreover, I've recently met a group of peer Ukrainians and regardless of what their mother language is, Ukrainian or Russian, I could hear a notable distinction between their palatalised н [nʲ] and our Polish ń [ɲ].

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In Budapest:
- Hey mate, are you hung-a-ry?

That makes sense.