This is true, in Attic. Aeolic changes *kʷ → p unconditionally, and Ionic changes *kʷ → k before a,o (not just u, as in Attic).Talskubilos wrote:In Greek, *kw > p except before front vowels, where it gives t. So the only way to get ku is from *ku.Goatface wrote:Woops; looks like my brain exploded. Yeah, we should expect to find peplos in Greek, but I don't know about the dialetal variation in labiovelar developments in Greek. Could be a loan from another Greek dialect.
European languages before Indo-European
Re: European languages before Indo-European
Re: European languages before Indo-European
This is why the reflexes of *kwel- ~ *kwol- ~ *kwəl- in Greek (Attic) either have /p/ like in pólos or /t/ like in télos.Goatface wrote:Woops; looks like my brain exploded. Yeah, we should expect to find peplos in Greek, but I don't know about the dialetal variation in labiovelar developments in Greek. Could be a loan from another Greek dialect.This is true, in Attic. Aeolic changes *kʷ → p unconditionally, and Ionic changes *kʷ → k before a,o (not just u, as in Attic).Talskubilos wrote:In Greek, *kw > p except before front vowels, where it gives t. So the only way to get ku is from *ku.
My conclusion is that kúklos can't be a native Greek word (cfr. Phrygian kíklē 'cart (constellation)') in any dialect, so it must be a loanword.
Remember that in non-std IE theories (e.g. Europic), labiovelars are a secondary development: *Ku > *Kw, the older stage being kept in Anatolian and Italic (yes, I know I'm out of ortodoxy!).
Re: European languages before Indo-European
Talskubilos wrote:This is why the reflexes of *kwel- ~ *kwol- ~ *kwəl- in Greek (Attic) either have /p/ like in pólos or /t/ like in télos.Goatface wrote:Woops; looks like my brain exploded. Yeah, we should expect to find peplos in Greek, but I don't know about the dialetal variation in labiovelar developments in Greek. Could be a loan from another Greek dialect.This is true, in Attic. Aeolic changes *kʷ → p unconditionally, and Ionic changes *kʷ → k before a,o (not just u, as in Attic).Talskubilos wrote:In Greek, *kw > p except before front vowels, where it gives t. So the only way to get ku is from *ku.
My conclusion is that kúklos can't be a native Greek word (cfr. Phrygian kíklē 'cart (constellation)') in any dialect, so it must be a loanword.
Remember that in non-std IE theories (e.g. Europic), labiovelars are a secondary development: *Ku > *Kw, the older stage being kept in Anatolian and Italic (yes, I know I'm out of ortodoxy!).
Not necessarily; what about a theoretical dialect that had 0-grade ablaut on the e, which became *kwklos, which later changed to kúklos?
Re: European languages before Indo-European
But would that be a regular correspondence? Would the vocalisation of the rounding explain the accent retraction?dhokarena56 wrote:Not necessarily; what about a theoretical dialect that had 0-grade ablaut on the e, which became *kwklos, which later changed to kúklos?
Re: European languages before Indo-European
Irregular sound changes do happen, all irregularities do not have to be from a foreign substrate…Richard W wrote:But would that be a regular correspondence? Would the vocalisation of the rounding explain the accent retraction?dhokarena56 wrote:Not necessarily; what about a theoretical dialect that had 0-grade ablaut on the e, which became *kwklos, which later changed to kúklos?
Re: European languages before Indo-European
Getting back to the original topic of the thread, some European languages have substrate loanwords of Semitic etymology. For example, Germanic *lipp- and Latin labrum (vulgar labium) 'lip'), from which some IE-ists reconstruct a root *leb-, can be linked to PSem *ɬa(n)p-(at-) 'lip' (-at- is the PSem feminine suffix), where *ɬ is a voiceless lateral fricative.
IMHO, this means at least some of Neolithic farmers who colonized Europe spoke languages related to Semitic.
IMHO, this means at least some of Neolithic farmers who colonized Europe spoke languages related to Semitic.
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Re: European languages before Indo-European
I don't know about this specific word, but there are some IE words that resemble Semitic words, which may have been Wanderwörter of the Eastern Mediterranean region, borrowed from language to language together with the spread of agriculture. An Afro-Asiatic language in Neolithic Europe is not impossible, though I would not rush at such a conclusion from just a few similar-looking words.Talskubilos wrote:Getting back to the original topic of the thread, some European languages have substrate loanwords of Semitic etymology. For example, Germanic *lipp- and Latin labrum (vulgar labium) 'lip'), from which some IE-ists reconstruct a root *leb-, can be linked to PSem *ɬa(n)p-(at-) 'lip' (-at- is the PSem feminine suffix), where *ɬ is a voiceless lateral fricative.
IMHO, this means at least some of Neolithic farmers who colonized Europe spoke languages related to Semitic.
...brought to you by the Weeping Elf
Tha cvastam émi cvastam santham amal phelsa. -- Friedrich Schiller
ESTAR-3SG:P human-OBJ only human-OBJ true-OBJ REL-LOC play-3SG:A
Tha cvastam émi cvastam santham amal phelsa. -- Friedrich Schiller
ESTAR-3SG:P human-OBJ only human-OBJ true-OBJ REL-LOC play-3SG:A
Re: European languages before Indo-European
If this were Wikipedia, I'd add a fact-tag. Sure, those forms look superficially alike, but we've all read this, don't we?Talskubilos wrote:*leb-, can be linked to PSem *ɬa(n)p-(at-)[/url][/b] 'lip'
Based on a single word that superficially looks like another word? Come on T., even you can do better than that...this means at least some of Neolithic farmers who colonized Europe spoke languages related to Semitic.
JAL
Re: European languages before Indo-European
There're other examples as well, so don't judge me so badly:jal wrote:Based on a single word that superficially looks like another word? Come on T., even you can do better than that...Talskubilos wrote:this means at least some of Neolithic farmers who colonized Europe spoke languages related to Semitic.
Talskubilos wrote:For example, *kapro- 'he-goat' (Greek kápros 'boar', Latin caper 'he-goat', Celtic *gabro- 'goat'), a substrate loanword often considered to be a PIE word, is related to Semitic *ɣupr-/*ʕupr- 'young of deer', with Celtic voiced velar *g reflecting Semitic *ɣ/*ʕ.
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Re: European languages before Indo-European
A goat is not a boar, and not a deer either. Only urbanites could confuse all those animals. Try harder.Talskubilos wrote:There're other examples as well, so don't judge me so badly:jal wrote:Based on a single word that superficially looks like another word? Come on T., even you can do better than that...Talskubilos wrote:this means at least some of Neolithic farmers who colonized Europe spoke languages related to Semitic.
Talskubilos wrote:For example, *kapro- 'he-goat' (Greek kápros 'boar', Latin caper 'he-goat', Celtic *gabro- 'goat'), a substrate loanword often considered to be a PIE word, is related to Semitic *ɣupr-/*ʕupr- 'young of deer', with Celtic voiced velar *g reflecting Semitic *ɣ/*ʕ.
...brought to you by the Weeping Elf
Tha cvastam émi cvastam santham amal phelsa. -- Friedrich Schiller
ESTAR-3SG:P human-OBJ only human-OBJ true-OBJ REL-LOC play-3SG:A
Tha cvastam émi cvastam santham amal phelsa. -- Friedrich Schiller
ESTAR-3SG:P human-OBJ only human-OBJ true-OBJ REL-LOC play-3SG:A
Re: European languages before Indo-European
You should tell that to the Indo-Europeanists who actually lumped these words together, not meWeepingElf wrote:A goat is not a boar, and not a deer either. Only urbanites could confuse all those animals. Try harder.Talskubilos wrote:For example, *kapro- 'he-goat' (Greek kápros 'boar', Latin caper 'he-goat', Celtic *gabro- 'goat'), a substrate loanword often considered to be a PIE word, is related to Semitic *ɣupr-/*ʕupr- 'young of deer', with Celtic voiced velar *g reflecting Semitic *ɣ/*ʕ.
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Re: European languages before Indo-European
I told you because it is you, not the Indo-Europeanists, who adduces this "etymology" as evidence for Semitic in Neolithic Europe. I have noticed this strange behaviour of yours several times. You cite a problematic etymology as evidence for your hypothesis; when someone else points out the problem, you say, "Yes, I know that the etymology is wrong; but don't tell me - I haven't come up with it". Bullfrogs. If you know that it is faulty, you must not use it as evidence. That is playing foul: "I know it is wrong but I'll see if I can get away with it". That's not science; that's make-believe. Do you now realize that you won't ever convince anybody with that kind of game you are playing?Talskubilos wrote:You should tell that to the Indo-Europeanists who actually lumped these words together, not meWeepingElf wrote:A goat is not a boar, and not a deer either. Only urbanites could confuse all those animals. Try harder.Talskubilos wrote:For example, *kapro- 'he-goat' (Greek kápros 'boar', Latin caper 'he-goat', Celtic *gabro- 'goat'), a substrate loanword often considered to be a PIE word, is related to Semitic *ɣupr-/*ʕupr- 'young of deer', with Celtic voiced velar *g reflecting Semitic *ɣ/*ʕ.
Of course, this etymology is bogus. The Greek and the Latin word match in form but not in meaning; the Celtic and Latin words match in meaning but not in form.
...brought to you by the Weeping Elf
Tha cvastam émi cvastam santham amal phelsa. -- Friedrich Schiller
ESTAR-3SG:P human-OBJ only human-OBJ true-OBJ REL-LOC play-3SG:A
Tha cvastam émi cvastam santham amal phelsa. -- Friedrich Schiller
ESTAR-3SG:P human-OBJ only human-OBJ true-OBJ REL-LOC play-3SG:A
Re: European languages before Indo-European
I don't think the etymology is wrong, but rather on the contrary (see below).WeepingElf wrote:I told you because it is you, not the Indo-Europeanists, who adduces this "etymology" as evidence for Semitic in Neolithic Europe. I have noticed this strange behaviour of yours several times. You cite a problematic etymology as evidence for your hypothesis; when someone else points out the problem, you say, "Yes, I know that the etymology is wrong; but don't tell me - I haven't come up with it". Bullfrogs. If you know that it is faulty, you must not use it as evidence. That is playing foul: "I know it is wrong but I'll see if I can get away with it".
What these "mismatches" tell us is this isn't a native IE (that is, inherited from PIE) word but a Wanderwort. Notice that the Celtic voiced stop is closer to the reconstructed Proto-Semitic form.WeepingElf wrote:Of course, this etymology is bogus. The Greek and the Latin word match in form but not in meaning; the Celtic and Latin words match in meaning but not in form.
Re: European languages before Indo-European
Then why would every different Indo-European tribe have used the word to mean a different animal, especially since these were animals that were native to their areas?Talskubilos wrote:What these "mismatches" tell us is this isn't a native IE (that is, inherited from PIE) word but a Wanderwort. Notice that the Celtic voiced stop is closer to the reconstructed Proto-Semitic form.
Re: European languages before Indo-European
Possibly because they borrowed the word from the people who previously inhabited these areas.Shm Jay wrote:Then why would every different Indo-European tribe have used the word to mean a different animal, especially since these were animals that were native to their areas?Talskubilos wrote:What these "mismatches" tell us is this isn't a native IE (that is, inherited from PIE) word but a Wanderwort. Notice that the Celtic voiced stop is closer to the reconstructed Proto-Semitic form.
Re: European languages before Indo-European
What, the previous inhabitants couldn’t tell the animals apart either?Talskubilos wrote:Probably because they borrowed the word from the people who previously inhabited the area,
Re: European languages before Indo-European
The same word could have been used to name different animals in different areas/habitats. That's by no means uncommon.
An interesting example could be a Wanderwort relative to horses (which were domesticated in the Eurasian steppes), and whose origin is PAltaic *kúlme 'a k. of ungulate', with metathesis (*kumle). This is found in Slavic (Russian kobyla 'mare') but also in Semitic *gam(a)l- 'camel'.
An interesting example could be a Wanderwort relative to horses (which were domesticated in the Eurasian steppes), and whose origin is PAltaic *kúlme 'a k. of ungulate', with metathesis (*kumle). This is found in Slavic (Russian kobyla 'mare') but also in Semitic *gam(a)l- 'camel'.
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Count Iblis
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Re: European languages before Indo-European
In Spencer Wells' The Journey of Man he notes that approx. 10,000 years ago (Wiki says 18,500 +- 3,500) there was a migration of Middle Easterners into Europe (carrying the M172 genetic marker). PAA is not much older than that.WeepingElf wrote:I don't know about this specific word, but there are some IE words that resemble Semitic words, which may have been Wanderwörter of the Eastern Mediterranean region, borrowed from language to language together with the spread of agriculture. An Afro-Asiatic language in Neolithic Europe is not impossible, though I would not rush at such a conclusion from just a few similar-looking words.
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Re: European languages before Indo-European
Let's not forget the Altaic *k`iap`a "a kind of young ungulate". A borrowing from Semitic to Altaic, even with IE as an intermediary, seems unlikely.Talskubilos wrote:For example, *kapro- 'he-goat' (Greek kápros 'boar', Latin caper 'he-goat', Celtic *gabro- 'goat'), a substrate loanword often considered to be a PIE word, is related to Semitic *ɣupr-/*ʕupr- 'young of deer', with Celtic voiced velar *g reflecting Semitic *ɣ/*ʕ.
Last edited by Count Iblis on Tue Nov 30, 2010 2:07 am, edited 1 time in total.
Re: European languages before Indo-European
PAA was still around the Red Sea 10,000 years ago. if I had to hazard a guess what the early Anatolian farmers spoke it was probably related to the languages of the Caucasus, most likely the now-extinct Hurro-Urantian Family.
Re: European languages before Indo-European
Don't forget the above is an example of an invalid PIE root wrongly reconstructed as such by many IE-ists. And perhaps the Altaic word is unrelated to the Semitic or may be it's a distant cognate. Also Wanderwörter can travel in the opposite direction (e.g. the 'camel' word).Count Iblis wrote:Let's not forget the Altaic *k`iap`a "a kind of young ungulate". A borrowing from Semitic to Altaic, even with IE as an intermediary, seems unlikely.Talskubilos wrote:For example, *kapro- 'he-goat' (Greek kápros 'boar', Latin caper 'he-goat', Celtic *gabro- 'goat'), a substrate loanword often considered to be a PIE word, is related to Semitic *ɣupr-/*ʕupr- 'young of deer', with Celtic voiced velar *g reflecting Semitic *ɣ/*ʕ.
The similarity between the forms used to name 'deer/goat' and 'boar' seen in the IE forms it's also reflected in Arabic, which in addition to ɣafr-, ɣufr- 'young or chamois/goat' also has ʕifr-, ʕufr- 'pig, boar; piglet', which I guess correspond to IE *H1epero- 'boar'. I guess the origin of this duality was phonosymbolism, with the voiced velar fricative ɣ for 'deer/goat' and the voiced pharyngeal ʕ for 'boar, pig'.
Last edited by Octavià on Tue Nov 30, 2010 4:38 pm, edited 3 times in total.
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Count Iblis
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Re: European languages before Indo-European
That's your claim, but you haven't demonstrated it to be true.Talskubilos wrote:Don't forget the above is an example of an invalid PIE root wrongly reconstructed as such by many IE-ists.
Re: European languages before Indo-European
That pretty much sums up each and every of T's arguments.Count Iblis wrote:That's your claim, but you haven't demonstrated it to be true.
JAL
Re: European languages before Indo-European
Actually, it was WeepingElf who showed it. Please read his post!Count Iblis wrote:That's your claim, but you haven't demonstrated it to be true.Talskubilos wrote:Don't forget the above is an example of an invalid PIE root wrongly reconstructed as such by many IE-ists.
Add to this that Celtic has *g instead of the expected k. What kind of PIE root would have such "irregularities"?WeepingElf wrote: Of course, this etymology is bogus. The Greek and the Latin word match in form but not in meaning; the Celtic and Latin words match in meaning but not in form.
Re: European languages before Indo-European
What do you think of the claim that English hog 'pig, esp. castrated boar' and English hog 'a yearling sheep not yet shorn' are cognate? My dictionaries list them as the same word, but what would lexicographers know?WeepingElf wrote:A goat is not a boar, and not a deer either. Only urbanites could confuse all those animals. Try harderTalskubilos wrote:For example, *kapro- 'he-goat' (Greek kápros 'boar', Latin caper 'he-goat', Celtic *gabro- 'goat'), a substrate loanword often considered to be a PIE word, is related to Semitic *ɣupr-/*ʕupr- 'young of deer', with Celtic voiced velar *g reflecting Semitic *ɣ/*ʕ.
More seriously, the meaning 'adolescent ungulate of food species' would fit both sets of words as the original core meaning.


