Pronominal gender

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Chuma
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Pronominal gender

Post by Chuma »

According to Wals,
Most scholars working on agreement include the control of anaphoric pronouns by their antecedent (the girl ... she ) as part of agreement. If this is accepted, as we do here, then languages in which free pronouns present the only evidence for gender will be counted as having a gender system. [...] Including them, however, makes little difference to the overall picture, since they are rare (the best known example is English, which is typologically unusual in this respect)
So, as I understand it, having words for "he" and "she", but not really categorising nouns into genders / noun classes, is something very few languages do.
I think I read something about there being a dozen or so languages which do similar things, but with other categorisations than "he"/"she"; for example, they might have animate/inanimate. But I can't find that text now.

If you combine the features "31A Sex-based and Non-sex-based Gender Systems" and "44A Gender Distinctions in Independent Personal Pronouns", you find that there are five languages which have no gender but still distinguish gender in pronouns. Which is a little confusing, but I guess the different WALS authors had different opinions on what constitutes gender.

Then I talked to a friend who is studying Japanese, and she said that Japanese had the same system as English in this respect. Is that another one of the rare exceptions, or have I gravely misunderstood something, or is Wals off the mark?

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by sirred »

I am going to give this a huge red flag and say that this is from what I remember of Japanese classes from nearly a decade ago, but from what I remember it was more of a situation where pronouns differ based on the speaker's gender. Women generally are expected to use more polite forms than men. I think there was something like "he" and "she" as well as non-gender specific pronouns though. Japanese does not make other gender distinctions (such as giving "book" a gender).

Interesting, Chinese makes a written but not spoken distinction between "he" and "she" which started following Western contact.
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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by finlay »

Yeah, Japanese doesn't generally use pronouns as much as european languages, and it varies more on the speaker's gender than anything else. It's also questionable whether they're grammatically any different from nouns (probably not) and further whether they're a closed class of words (again, probably not), which may be a requirement to be recognized as a "pronoun" linguistically. Going by the Wikipedia article, they have words for "he" and "she" specifically, but they basically mean "that boy" and "that girl". And they seem to only have been introduced through "Western influence".

What I hear as more prevalent is the use of different terms for "I" – boku or ore for men and atashi for women.

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Bob Johnson »

Yeah, the most common Japanese pronoun is null. You have <kare> "he, that man, (abbr.) boyfriend" and <kanojo> "she, that woman, girlfriend" sure, but you also have <ano kata> "the [person in] the other direction" <asoko no hito> "that other person over there" and other ways to get around it if you like.

The joys of not having a true pronoun class.

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Chuma »

So how can you tell that something is really a pronoun? In English, I would say, because they have object forms etc., but generally?

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Astraios »

Because of what it can do, i.e. stand in for a nominal phrase.

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Bob Johnson »

Or can't: you can't say "the red me" in English; you can substitute Japanese 'pronouns' for any other regular noun. English has a separate grammatical class for these words; in Japanese the difference is purely semantic.

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by merijn »

Also binding: John said he was my friend vs He said that John was my friend. In the first sentence John and He can refer to the same person, in the second sentence they can't. (I don't know how Japanese works wrt binding)

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Chuma »

Astraios wrote:Because of what it can do, i.e. stand in for a nominal phrase.
But surely a nominal phrase can also stand in for a nominal phrase?
Bob Johnson wrote:Or can't: you can't say "the red me" in English
But you can say "the new me".

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by merijn »

Chuma wrote:
Bob Johnson wrote:Or can't: you can't say "the red me" in English
But you can say "the new me".
I would argue that it is a noun in that particular phrase. There are two pieces of evidence for that. 1) The "me" in "the new me" doesn't have case: The new me is brilliant vs *The new I is brilliant, and 2) it triggers 3rd person singular subject agreement The new me is brilliant vs The new me am brilliant. I think you even say When the new me sees itself in the mirror and not * When the new me sees myself in the mirror.

EDIT This all points to "me" in this phrase being 3rd person, whereas the pronominal "me"is always 1st person. I would argue that this "me" is similar to using phrases as "this linguist" to refer to yourself. That is, it has a different meaning from the personal pronoun "me".

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Bob Johnson »

Chuma wrote:
Bob Johnson wrote:Or can't: you can't say "the red me" in English
But you can say "the new me".
First, this is the wrong direction of evidence; if you want to show that they are the same class, pointing out similarities is in no way dispositive.

And to put a concrete example:

私はタバコを止める
watashi=wa tabako=o yame-ru
1=TOP tobacco=ACC stop-NPST.TERM
I am going to quit smoking.

新しい私はタバコを止める
atarashi-i watashi=wa tabako=o yame-ru
be.new-NPST.ATTR 1=TOP tobacco=ACC stop-NPST.TERM
The new me is going to quit smoking.

The Japanese just adds a new word; English has to change things around to work.

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Chuma »

Merijn: Good point.

Is this universal? Apart from languages like Japanese, which apparently don't have proper pronouns, is it the norm that you can't use adjectives etc. with pronouns? One might imagine saying "tall he" for "that tall guy", or "you ready" for "those of you who are ready". Come to think of it, other descriptors work in English, like "you in the corner", or "he with the hat" (the last one sounds a bit strange to me in English, but fine in Swedish).

Oh, and how common is the Japanese system? Wals claims two languages out of 261 (Wari and Acoma) have "no independent subject pronouns".

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Re: Pronominal gender

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Bob Johnson wrote:Or can't: you can't say "the red me" in English; you can substitute Japanese 'pronouns' for any other regular noun. English has a separate grammatical class for these words; in Japanese the difference is purely semantic.
I'm not sure I buy this. We normally don't say "the red me" because there's no need— it's inherently definite, the referent is obvious and thus needs no description. But all it takes is a little context:

Don't get me mad. You wouldn't like the angry me.

Discover a new you.

Ever feel like there are two yous?

He was hunted by the ancient thought that somewhere must exist the not impossible she who would understand him, value him, and make him happy.
[Sinclair Lewis, 1922]

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Re: Pronominal gender

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zompist wrote:
Bob Johnson wrote:Or can't: you can't say "the red me" in English; you can substitute Japanese 'pronouns' for any other regular noun. English has a separate grammatical class for these words; in Japanese the difference is purely semantic.
I'm not sure I buy this. We normally don't say "the red me" because there's no need— it's inherently definite, the referent is obvious and thus needs no description. But all it takes is a little context:

Don't get me mad. You wouldn't like the angry me.

Discover a new you.

Ever feel like there are two yous?

He was hunted by the ancient thought that somewhere must exist the not impossible she who would understand him, value him, and make him happy.
[Sinclair Lewis, 1922]
Those seem like the same kinds of constructions as the ones Bob Johnson was saying can't be analyzed like that. That they look parallel to pronominal constructions is just an accident, since English pronouns have the accusative as their citation form. Compare "you wouldn't like the angry me" to "the angry me wouldn't like that".
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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Yng »

Yeah. Saying that those are pronominal constructions is a bit like describing 'no ifs, no buts' as a conjunctive construction.
كان يا ما كان / يا صمت العشية / قمري هاجر في الصبح بعيدا / في العيون العسلية

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by zompist »

merijn wrote:
Chuma wrote:
Bob Johnson wrote:Or can't: you can't say "the red me" in English
But you can say "the new me".
I would argue that it is a noun in that particular phrase. There are two pieces of evidence for that. 1) The "me" in "the new me" doesn't have case: The new me is brilliant vs *The new I is brilliant, and 2) it triggers 3rd person singular subject agreement The new me is brilliant vs The new me am brilliant. I think you even say When the new me sees itself in the mirror and not * When the new me sees myself in the mirror.

EDIT This all points to "me" in this phrase being 3rd person, whereas the pronominal "me"is always 1st person. I would argue that this "me" is similar to using phrases as "this linguist" to refer to yourself. That is, it has a different meaning from the personal pronoun "me".
The observations about case and number are good, but agreement is not a definitive test of person! Note Spanish Usted and Portuguese você which both take 3s agreement, or French on in the sense of 'we', which takes 3s verbal agreement but plural agreement with adjectives. And none of these have case.

Titles used as pronouns ("your majesty", Portuguese "o senhor") also take 3s agreement. French sa majesté takes feminine adjective agreement, and occurs with both elle and il.

So, when we derive a new pronominal expression, there seems to be a tendency to give it 3s agreement. But then 3s is really more than 3s— the agreement system has changed. (In Brazil, the old 2nd person pronouns and verb forms are almost entirely gone.)
Yng wrote:Saying that those are pronominal constructions is a bit like describing 'no ifs, no buts' as a conjunctive construction.
I don't think so. I'm not sure of the right term for what you're describing, but it's just citing rather than using linguistic forms. It's parallel to saying "Why didn't you capitalize your I's?"

The difference is that expressions like "a new you" or "the angry me" are still deictic. They still refer to you and me, respectively, and change according to speaker: "You don't like the new me?" "No, I don't like the new you!"

I think there's a scale from pure pronouns to pure NPs; these expressions certainly move along the way to NP. (I'm not sure how to think about expressions like "this writer"; they're certainly not pure pronouns in English, but surely that's because it's not a convention to write that way. If it were, if "this writer" was how everyone referred to themselves, then arguably it'd become a pronoun.)

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Bob Johnson »

zompist wrote:Note Spanish Usted [...] take[s] 3s agreement
because it derives from <vuestra merced> "your mercy", a noun
zompist wrote:or French on in the sense of 'we'
because it derives from <hominem> "man.ACC", a noun
zompist wrote:Titles used as pronouns ("your majesty", Portuguese "o senhor") also take 3s agreement
because they're nouns, just like "your car"
zompist wrote:So, when we derive a new pronominal expression, there seems to be a tendency to give it 3s agreement.
People aren't conlangers; they don't decide "oh 3s seems like the best agreement to trigger for this new word I invented today, let's use that." These examples all follow regular etymological processes through which people reduced plain nouns or NPs into words that look a lot more like pronouns. If anything, dropping agreement from I/me and allowing it to take adjectives freely is a change in the opposite direction.
zompist wrote:The difference is that expressions like "a new you" or "the angry me" are still deictic.
Yes, deictic nouns, just like "the wife wants a vacation" or "there's a man at the door" will have different referents when spoken by different people. Semantic deixis does not make a grammatical pronoun.

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Re: Pronominal gender

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Bob Johnson wrote:
zompist wrote:So, when we derive a new pronominal expression, there seems to be a tendency to give it 3s agreement.
People aren't conlangers; they don't decide "oh 3s seems like the best agreement to trigger for this new word I invented today, let's use that." These examples all follow regular etymological processes through which people reduced plain nouns or NPs into words that look a lot more like pronouns. If anything, dropping agreement from I/me and allowing it to take adjectives freely is a change in the opposite direction.
I've seen a strong argument that in cases of doubt regarding agreement, languages tend to have default strategies that simply assign any doubtful case to some form. In English, pronouns have the oblique forms as the default forms, so you find them pop up in a lot of places one wouldn't expect whenever it doesn't map to trivial constructions.

Likewise, verb agreement probably defaults to 3s. C.f. how "there is/are X" often comes out with is even with plural subjects for many speakers. I could provide examples from other languages, but I don't know Spanish or French so can't provide any from those.
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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Radius Solis »

zompist wrote: I think there's a scale from pure pronouns to pure NPs; these expressions certainly move along the way to NP. (I'm not sure how to think about expressions like "this writer"; they're certainly not pure pronouns in English, but surely that's because it's not a convention to write that way. If it were, if "this writer" was how everyone referred to themselves, then arguably it'd become a pronoun.)
Arguable indeed, and I'm going to. I certainly grant that there's a continuum of behaviors, but we have to pick one word or the other, I would not want to count "this writer" as a pronoun until it had grammaticalized at least enough to diverge prosodically, phonetically, or morphosyntactically from the NP, or else filled a paradigm gap. Because if there are no differences and it isn't filling a gap, then we do not gain much by classing it as a pronoun instead of a conventionalized phrase.

And in a language like Japanese the case for "pronouns" gets worse, because if my understanding is correct, none of the noun choices are very stable over the long term - it's not like English y'all or Spanish Usted where the phrase is created and that's it, we're done, the language has a new pronoun for the forseeable future. Instead they are subject to the linguistic fashions of each generation and are occasionally replaced with new noun phrases, not giving any of them a chance to grammaticalize. So a claim that these form a separate class of words, i.e. pronouns, is based on little more than the function they perform, and perhaps discomfort with the idea of a language not having pronouns. But isn't it more parsimonious to say that that function is performed by nouns in Japanese than to list Japanese "pronouns" and then have to describe all the ways they differ from the sort of words we'd normally call pronouns?

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Re: Pronominal gender

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Radius Solis wrote:
zompist wrote: I think there's a scale from pure pronouns to pure NPs; these expressions certainly move along the way to NP. (I'm not sure how to think about expressions like "this writer"; they're certainly not pure pronouns in English, but surely that's because it's not a convention to write that way. If it were, if "this writer" was how everyone referred to themselves, then arguably it'd become a pronoun.)
Arguable indeed, and I'm going to. I certainly grant that there's a continuum of behaviors, but we have to pick one word or the other, I would not want to count "this writer" as a pronoun until it had grammaticalized at least enough to diverge prosodically, phonetically, or morphosyntactically from the NP, or else filled a paradigm gap.
If it's become the 1s pronoun, it's grammaticalized! But it's not useful to dwell on a hypothetical example when there are plenty of real ones.

Etymology is not destiny. Nouns become pronouns! Just because we have nice one-syllable unanalyzable pronouns in English doesn't mean that everyone has to do it that way.

For an exception we don't have to go further than Portuguese, where the polite 2s pronoun was till recently o senhor (m.), a senhora (f.).
And in a language like Japanese the case for "pronouns" gets worse, because if my understanding is correct, none of the noun choices are very stable over the long term - it's not like English y'all or Spanish Usted where the phrase is created and that's it, we're done, the language has a new pronoun for the forseeable future. Instead they are subject to the linguistic fashions of each generation and are occasionally replaced with new noun phrases, not giving any of them a chance to grammaticalize. So a claim that these form a separate class of words, i.e. pronouns, is based on little more than the function they perform, and perhaps discomfort with the idea of a language not having pronouns. But isn't it more parsimonious to say that that function is performed by nouns in Japanese than to list Japanese "pronouns" and then have to describe all the ways they differ from the sort of words we'd normally call pronouns?
No, it's more parsimonious to say that pronoun systems change.

Yes, Japanese is subject to periodic pronoun replacement. How completely eccentric and unaccountable of them, except that we see the exact same thing in Portuguese. Having a perfectly good 2s pronoun in tu, they innovated a formal vossa mercê, simplified it to vosmecê and finally to você, and when that started to sound too familiar, innovated o senhor.

Most European languages have innovated their 2nd person pronouns at least to some extent, including English. (I'm not sure how you cite y'all as an example of pronoun stability!) French, as noted, has created a new 1p pronoun. Innovating 3rd person pronouns is of course as common as dirt.

The Old Chinese personal pronouns were
1s— *rag, *ngag, *ngarx
2s— *njagx, *njidx
3s— *gjəg, *tjəg, *gwjan

...only one of which underlines a modern pronoun (*ngarx → wǒ). And it seems that pronouns were often viewed as impolite and were replaced by titles or circumlocutions, both in 1st and 2nd person.

Bottom line, let's not make languages more exotic than they have to be. Japanese is not unique in having analyzable pronouns, in replacing pronouns, in mixing up pronouns and titles.

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Re: Pronominal gender

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Bob Johnson wrote:
zompist wrote:The difference is that expressions like "a new you" or "the angry me" are still deictic.
Yes, deictic nouns, just like "the wife wants a vacation" or "there's a man at the door" will have different referents when spoken by different people. Semantic deixis does not make a grammatical pronoun.
And what does, according to you?

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by zompist »

Agreement is a red herring, but I do think there's something less pronouny about expressions like "the new you", and I think I've figured out what: they're limitative. In effect they divide up the idea of "me" or "you", and so the referent isn't simply the speaker or listener.

But I thought of another example, which is simply attributive:

I thought it'd take a day to write. Foolish me!

Cf. also The Naked and Famous's brilliant album Passive Me, Aggressive You.

This is a marginal construction in English, but e.g. in Latin it was apparently possible to use ego infelix in a normal sentence.

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by Radius Solis »

How completely eccentric and unaccountable of them

Yes, I'm a wild-eyed crackpot, I'll see about having it fixed.

Meanwhile, there are probably any number of other languages that work like Japanese does in regard to pronouns, but Portuguese isn't one of them, even in regards to innovation (see below). Portuguese also meets all the other criteria I used for pronounhood that Japanese "pronouns" don't.
If it's become the 1s pronoun, it's grammaticalized!
Circular! Did you mean to say something else and it came out wrong? Pronounhood is of course the very conclusion I was testing by looking at grammaticalization.
(I'm not sure how you cite y'all as an example of pronoun stability!)
I meant to point to the stability of the paradigm, such that members may come or go but the system stays. Old Chinese had different pronouns a long time ago, great, but it had some. Corrections are welcome but my recollection is that Japanese had no such system that long ago, or even two centuries ago: nothing but "this", "that", important syntactic gaps, and non-deictic usage of normal nouns.
Bottom line, let's not make languages more exotic than they have to be.
To the extent that my understanding is correct, Japanese is what it is, and if you want to argue that I'm misunderstanding it then I will be interested to understand the situation better. But if we're only talking about how we describe the aforementioned behavior, my goal is to be accurate, and I do not see how stretching word definitions to accommodate things they don't normally accommodate serves this goal. Or do you really think "sometimes deictic" is a sufficient condition/definition for pronounhood?

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by zompist »

Radius Solis wrote:
How completely eccentric and unaccountable of them

Yes, I'm a wild-eyed crackpot, I'll see about having it fixed.

Meanwhile, there are probably any number of other languages that work like Japanese does in regard to pronouns, but Portuguese isn't one of them, even in regards to innovation (see below). Portuguese also meets all the other criteria I used for pronounhood that Japanese "pronouns" don't.
Which are what? You mention "grammaticalization" but don't explain what you mean by it. In what way is "o senhor" grammaticalized? How does the process of pronoun replacement in Portuguese differ from that of Japanese?
If it's become the 1s pronoun, it's grammaticalized!
Circular! Did you mean to say something else and it came out wrong? Pronounhood is of course the very conclusion I was testing by looking at grammaticalization.
It was a reference to your own circularity. We were talking about a hypothetical situation, and you assume it isn't grammaticalized. Why wouldn't it be?
Bottom line, let's not make languages more exotic than they have to be.
To the extent that my understanding is correct, Japanese is what it is,
I certainly cannot argue with the proposition that Japanese is what it is!

It would be nice if you'd offer an actual argument, however. All I've seen so far is Bob's example of Japanese being able to add an attribution to a pronoun without changing agreement or adding articles. But Japanese never has agreement or adds articles, so that's hardly a proof! And Latin, so far as I can see, can do the same thing.

Now, I don't know Japanese, so I can't present facts about it myself. I note that Masayoshi Shibatani and Samuel Martin are perfectly content to talk about pronouns in Japanese. Takao Suzuki is not so happy about it (he thinks it obscures the whole framework of self- and other-reference), but he ends up using the term for words like boku anyway (just downplaying their importance, but no one is arguing about that).
Or do you really think "sometimes deictic" is a sufficient condition/definition for pronounhood?
And what is it according to you?

I've just looked at a few definitions of "pronouns", and I'm not very satisfied with any of them. E.g. Wikipedia says they "substitute for a noun", and McCawley's "take their interpretation from another part of the sentence of discourse" is just a fancier way of saying this. But this doesn't cover 1st and 2nd person pronouns at all! There is no noun that has the meaning of "I", and "I" doesn't refer to another NP.

So I'll give it a try myself. I think the prototypical pronoun (i.e. as far from a noun as possible) is a lexeme which can serve as the argument to a verb and which has no meaning besides deixis.

That includes person deixis, and that's really the key function of personal pronouns: to provide conventionalized ways of referring to speaker and listener. It's a bonus, but not necessary, to be able to refer to third parties.

Pronouns can indicate syntactic role of course, but that's doesn't affect the definition so far, as that doesn't change their meaning.

Whatever the language grammaticalizes can also be thrown in. That includes gender, animacy, number, and politeness. (Occasionally the pronoun system is the only place where some of these are grammaticalized. It's so common that I'm not bothered by that, but it's a little step away from the prototype.)

We start moving away from (but not necessarily leaving) the prototype if the words start to include semantic information. In one direction we find the impersonal pronouns, which add logical meanings. In another we find vague, not necessarily sincere references to status, a middle ground between pronouns and titles. The Japanese personal pronouns seem to me to fit here.

Another step away are titles and kinship terms used pronominally (i.e. as a direct reference to a person). These are usually analyzable, and the process is somewhat productive, but it's also highly conventionalized and not really modifiable. If the correct title is "Your Grace" you're not allowed to say "Your Amazing Grace" even if you think the titleholder is amazing.

Pronouns aren't normally modifiable, but I wouldn't want to put it in the definition-- after all, that would beg the very question we started with. However, the definition tells us why pronouns aren't normally modified: because it gets in the way of restricting the word to deixis alone. Pronouns are used for quick reference, so adding extraneous information gets in the way of their purpose. But as I've shown, even in IE languages we can still do it.

Also missing from the definition is "has to be a short unanalyzable root like many IE pronouns", because that would be wrong. Pronouns are innovated, and ultimately they come from nouns. As a corollary, showing that a form can also be interpreted as a noun or NP doesn't prove that it's not a pronoun.

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Re: Pronominal gender

Post by merijn »

I am a generative grammarian, that is that I try to make models of languages that generate grammatical expressions, defined as sound-meaning pairs, of a given language and don't generate ungrammatical expressions of a given language. For English, and almost any other language, it is useful for a generative grammarian to assume that there is a difference between personal pronouns on the one hand and NP's headed by nouns on the other hands. These are some of the topics where you need to make that distinction:
1) pronouns always represent a whole NP, whereas nouns do not always represent whole NP's. This means that a) pronouns cannot be modified by prenominal adjectives, and b) pronouns don't have determiners.
2)Personal pronouns may have accusative and nominative forms, whereas nouns are always invariant.
3) Personal pronouns cannot bind full NP's, whereas full NP's can bind personal pronouns: This is the difference between "The boyi said that hei was my friend" and "* Hei said that the boyi was my friend.
According to all these criteria, "the new me" is a NP headed by a noun and thus "me" in this phrase is a noun and not a pronoun. It also binds third person pronouns, so it is syntactically a 3rd person expression. I think it is certainly defendable to say that it is semantically 3rd person but that it gets its 1st person meaning through pragmatics.

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